In order for a case to get to court there has to be sufficient evidence for it to get that far.
Wrong. There only has to be a charge presented for a judge to be necessary. The evidence is what is presented in court.
You can't dismiss the evidence before it is brought to court. That's called stacking the deck, and it should make ANY competent judge immediately suspicious that there is malicious intent involved.
Is a hypothetical question meant to test your ability to judge.
You have failed spectacularly.
Therefore trying to argue that it should be a case of giving a guilty/innocent verdict from a judicial perspective is a complete non starter.
So you reject the concept of "innocent until proven guilty"?
(Which, by the way, only applies to court decisions, as if someone commits a crime, they are guilty the moment they do so, not when they are proven to have done so.)
If that's what he was angling for then he should have fleshed it out a whole load more cos it wouldn't even get to trial as it stands.
In other words, the man would be considered innocent, because he had not been proven guilty.
Thus, "not guilty" is the correct response. It's amazing how much you've waffled to try to get out of giving that simple answer.
Heck, with him, even if the husband were caught in the act of forcing himself on his wife he'd find the guy not guilty of rape anyway where proof is 100% established.
Deal with the scenario as it's presented, not how you want it to be presented.
What beef do you have with my answer
Because it denies "innocent until proven guilty in a court of law."
whereby the only honest opinion one could have with the vagueness of his scenario would be indeterminate?
Wrong, it would be "innocent until proven guilty in a court of law."
AKA: Not Guilty.
Husband could be innocent, he could be guilty.
If he committed the crime, then he's guilty the moment he did so. But that's a different matter than when the case is brought before a court of law, which is what Derf's scenario is talking about.