Shall we take Assumption Number 3: there is a being that created the universe? If that assumption is correct then there is sound logic in forming a system of belief that fears that power and might try to get into its good books. Those are both key themes in the Judeo-christian scriptures.
Assumption 3 is a conclusion, extrapolated in a different manner from the first two. Assumption 1, being "I exist," (which I love the Descartes method usage, bravo on that), this is a conclusion based on observable reality. Assumption 2, likewise, a conclusion based on observable reality. Assumption 3 should be, "something caused the universe." Jumping to a God created universe skips the first logical conclusion that can be reached from observable realities, which is the necessity of cause.
Even though the Latin root of the word science means 'to know', actually that only refers to the body of provisional knowledge acquired through the scientific method. Really, science is a verb that indicates following the set of principles as I outlined above.
Science is a noun. I understand how you can use science as an action, but then you are "using science," thus making "using" the verb. Sure, one can use slang and say "Science it up," but that is slang, implying improper use of vocabulary.
You seem to try and skirt around my point, being that Logic, Math, Science, etc are all abstract ideas, that we accept due to them being "real," yet lacking empirical proof of their existence.
You have elements such as torture and death of a man-god; dying and rising gods; virgin birth; and 25th December as a date with some resonance for different reasons. So I would accept the criticism regarding my use of 'just another', and maybe offer instead that the mythology of Jesus is a different combination of the same old man-god story elements, many of which are Mesopotamian, but not exclusively. Everywhere from Rome, through Greece and Egypt to further East stories with these same elements have arisen time and again.
If it is okay with you, I would like to skip discussing the parallels of archaic religions, as I believe I can best address that in a different point, versus going at it head on.
I think you are being disingenuous by not addressing my question, and by persisting with the strawman argument that knowing about a religious salvation mythology can be called 'historical knowledge'. As you will appreciate, and can read from my other statements, I don't accept that there is anything historical at all about a man being a saviour. It is a con, one of the biggest ever perpetrated on humanity.
Okay, I think you cleared it up a little for me with this statement. So, rather that using your original point, comparing physical necessities with the "necessity of a savior," you rather claim that there is no history of a man being the divine savior? Am I correct in this analysis?
And there is not one eyewitness account of Jesus in existence. No one who ever saw Jesus wrote about it, as far as we can tell. All you have is hearsay, at best. That is all scholars have to go on when they conclude, on balance of probability that Jesus existed and was executed by the Romans. There is some support for his baptism as well. And that's it, circumstance and hearsay. And it is easy to establish that much of the gospel writing is made up, as I explained earlier.
And, false. First, the Gospel according to John was composed by an Apostle of Christ. Matthew, also, an Apostle, boasts the single closest biographical account in all of history, being written 20 years after the events described in his work (worthy of note; his Gospel account contains portions written in early Aramaic, the language of the time). Both of these men literally walked with Christ. There are letters from early Romans, for example, Tacitus, writing in the early 100's AD, specifically mentioning Christ, Christ's Crucifixion by Pilate, early Christians in Jerusalem and Rome, etc. Here is a quick Google search link with several secular accounts of Christ:
https://probe.org/ancient-evidence-for-jesus-from-non-christian-sources-2/
More evidence below.
Historical fiction, remember? The fallacy of composition, remember?
Let us examine this claim of the Bible being historical fiction. Compare other historically accepted texts, all considered as factual. Herodotus'
Histories, believed not to have been composed by Herodotus. Thucydides's
History of the Peloponnesian War. Xenophon of Athens work,
Hellenica. All of these ancient texts, and more, are considered to be factual historical accounts. Despite lacking peer review and outside sources. All of these detail events that are decades past.
The writings of the New Testament were composed in less than 50 years of each other. Matthew's Gospel, the author having lived with Christ, was composed between 50-55 AD. It was written in Palestine. Mark's Gospel, composed in 60 AD, was written in Rome. Luke, a noted historian, composed his Gospel account and Acts of the Apostles in 62 (some scholars suggest 67) and 63 AD, respectively. Luke's writing occurred in Rome. John's Gospel was composed latest, near the end of his life, in 98 AD, written in Ephesus. The writings of Matthew, Mark, and Luke all have the same events occurring, with claims being identical (the differences being the order of events, or the exact vocabulary used). Early authors cite the Gospels as early as the last years of the first century. St Clement of Rome mentions the four books between 92 and 101 AD. St Ignatius of Antioch, who died around 107 AD, spoke of the four books. Papias, a bishop of Hierapolis in Asia Minor, first refers to the attributed authors of their Gospels, around 130 AD.
When scholars speak of the "historicity" of the Gospels, they mean that the accounts are true accounts of what Christ said and did, as witnessed by various individuals. They are reporting things which were not a systematic history, but a genuine accounting of events. Using various historical sciences, scholars check the Gospel accounts using historico-critical methods by verifying them with various sources, such as pagan/secular sources, confirming the events as factual events, then crosschecking them with their religious counterparts. Thus, ensuring the historical facts being accurately represented in the Gospel accounts.
These methods, utilized by various scholars of varying religious or atheist backgrounds, thus proves the Bible as a historical source. It was composed within the lifetime of the authors, and details events that they witnessed or witnessed by vast numbers of people.
What is your point about the two Herods? Exactly what Roman letters are you describing? Do you mean Josephus? Who?
My point with the various Herod's as rulers in the Jewish regions is that there are more than one Herod. Your claim was that Herod never required a census or tried to slaughter kids under the age of two. Which is true for one Herod, but not true for the Herod that history identifies as ruling in the first years BC.
As for the various Roman sources, there is Lucian, Josephus, and Tacitus, etc. These I believe are noted in the link from the Google search.
Regarding the alleged exodus, who would gain the most from finding the evidence for the exodus? You might think it would be the Israeli government, wouldn't you. What could be more useful than digging up the title deeds for the state of Israel? Well, as it turns out, it was archeologists at Tel Aviv university who did the work, and despite a pretty exhaustive effort, they demonstrated that the expected evidence from that many people living in that bit of desert for that length of time, is non-existent. They had the most to gain, and they say it's not real. The archaeology of the exodus has been going on for more than a century. Nothing!
Who is performing this archaeology of the exodus that has produced no evidence? Because, there are villages found along the supposed path of the Hebrews, bearing Jewish artifacts. There are glyphs in Egypt which depict the exodus of the Hebrews. There are several sites which bear extensive evidence of Hebrews passing through during the estimated decade of the exodus. Most historians and scholars agree that there is no evidence
against the exodus. The arguments come from under which Pharaoh was ruling during this event.
I couldn't have put it better myself.
I am glad you agree. That is a quote from George Wald, renowned atheist. I love that quote. What I love most about it is the appeal to logic. What I find ironic about that quote is that directly after this, Wald says how he believes in Spontaneous Generation, because he refuses to accept the alternate explanation of intelligent design. (a completely different topic, but I just wanted to expound upon the hypocritical nature of Wald dismissing and ignoring evidence that alludes to theories he doesn't like)
Historical records support the events described in the Bible. Just as historical records support the events described in Homer's Iliad. You can dismiss the supernatural influences, as that is the skeptical approach. But to deny the historical accuracy is akin to Wald, rejecting evidence that is detrimental to his preferred beliefs. When one prefers to accept falsehoods and myth, they are rejecting logic. Thus, to continue to insist that the Bible is not historically accurate, that no one witnessed Christ, or that there is no evidence to support it, then you are being illogical and preferring falsehoods and your own myths.