ECT What is the true root objection to MAD?

tetelestai

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LIFETIME MEMBER
99 to 1 that Tet avoids this.

It's not hard to explain.

Jesus was a Jew from the line of Judah.

His own (the Jews) rejected Him.

The Jews didn't need Jesus to die in order to be remarried to Him. However, the Israelites from the House of Israel did, because a remarriage would have been an abomination as per Deut 24:4

(Deut 24:4 KJV) Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

If you understood this, you would see why the Disciples could not preach to the Samaritans or Gentiles before the cross, but were told to do so after the cross.
 

tetelestai

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LIFETIME MEMBER
So, a Gentile could be called a Jew, but not an actual Israelite??

Anyone could become a Jew.

A Gentile could become a Jew (Esther 8:17), and an Israelite from the 10 Northern Tribes could become Jews (many did), but the Israelites from the 10 Northern Tribes that didn't become Jews, were never called Jews.

It was these Israelites from the 10 Northern Tribes that were scattered, divorced from God, told they weren't a people, and told God would not have mercy on them, whom Jesus was sent to (the lost sheep)
 

tetelestai

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LIFETIME MEMBER
So, he was sent to his own?

The NC was promised to both Houses.

The House of Judah didn't need Jesus to die to be remarried to Him. The House of Judah (the Jews) were given mercy, entrusted with the oracles of God, sat on the seat of Moses, etc.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
What made a Gentile a Jew?

I think you're confusing what the Pharisees required, and what the OT required.

When Peter said he would get in trouble for being in a Gentile's house, that wasn't from the Law of Moses, that was from the evil Jewish Talmud.

The Pharisees and Jews of the first century put the evil Talmud over the OT, which is why Jesus was constantly scolding the Pharisees, and even told them that they put their "traditions of men" over the Word of God.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
I think you're confusing what the Pharisees required, and what the OT required.

When Peter said he would get in trouble for being in a Gentile's house, that wasn't from the Law of Moses, that was from the evil Jewish Talmud.

The Pharisees and Jews of the first century put the evil Talmud over the OT, which is why Jesus was constantly scolding the Pharisees, and even told them that they put their "traditions of men" over the Word of God.

So, what made a Gentile a Jew?
 

IMJerusha

New member
How does one lose eternal life that was given them?

Easy, by rejecting it or sucking up falsehood from HaSatan. 2Peter 3:17 "Therefore, dear friends, since you have been forewarned, be on your guard so that you may not be carried away by the error of the lawless and fall from your secure position."
 

tetelestai

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Then, why couldn't the circumcised Israelites be called Jews?

They could if they wanted, but they chose to worship Baal instead of God. They built a counterfeit temple on a different mount.

God divorced them because of their adultery (worshiping other gods)

The Israelites from the 10 Northern Tribes wanted nothing to do with the Jews.

Because of what they did, God divorced them, and scattered them amongst the Gentiles.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
So, he was sent to his own (Jews)?

Maybe understanding the Levites will help you.

All priests had to be from the tribe of Levi. Only Levites could be priests.

However, only descendants from the family of Aaron could be priests. Other Levites could not be priests no matter how bad they wanted to.

So, within the Levites was a separate and distinct family that could only be priests.
 
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