You missed/ignored the point, which is not WHY there is a contradiction in the first place, but rather that nobody corrected it. If nobody corrected it, then there is no gloss here.
That's what is called appeal to authority. "If it was not corrected is because it is true." Show me your own understanding of the Scriptures and not the understanding of another.
Give me a break! Most of the books of the New Testament are addressed to some specific group. e.g. Romans 1:7
Yea, groups of Jews in previous synagogues that Paul overturned into Christian churches. That's what he chose to do while claiming that he had assigned as an apostle to the Gentiles.
You claim you wish to evaluate the New Testament logically and impartially, but your scholarship is lacking. If you had any idea of textual criticism or hermeneutics, you would know that one of the first, most important considerations of any book is that of audience.
Oh! I am aware of that Christian strategy: You want me to evaluate the NT as a Christian and not as a Jew. It doesn't go that way.
The Biblical books are NOT written to nebulous "Christianity" but rather each has a specific audience.
I know, former Jewish audiences. Since Paul's first station in Damascus and until his last one in Rome, he never left the Jews in peace. (Acts 9:1,2 and 28:17)
No - that is part of modern Jewish culture. Ancient Jewish culture did not contain that feature. It was added in Europe during the Dark Ages out of necessity due to the Inquisitions. You have projected modern traditions into the past, where they do not exist.
Very convenient! You are of the opinion that what was added to ease up the crimes of the Inquisition should remain as a feature of Judaism. Nice try though! The concept of Pichuach Nephesh is allowed to be used but not to remain as a feature of Judaism.
Circumcision is beriyth, a covenant but not an adoption. Baptism is tabal, an adoption ceremony showing forth death and re-birth.
Circumcision was adopted by Judaism as part of the EVERLASTING Abrahamic Covenant. (Gen. 17:13)
Yes, just not exclusively so. As I said before, Messiah simply means "Anointed." Since Israel is God's people, set apart for priestly function, they are indeed "messiah" - anointed.
They are not "simply" a Messiah but the Messiah, special Messiah. (Exod. 19:6; Hab. 3:13; Jer. 31:36; Psalm 78:67-70)
But that does nothing to remove the "messiach" - anointing - from any others. The high priest is anointed. The king is anointed. Thus they are all "messiah."
I have gone through this with you, even specifying the kinds of Messiah we have. Any anointed by any other as in the case of Jesus by Christians has no consequence as the Jewish Messiah is concerned.
You are missing the point. What I am arguing here isn't even about Jesus in a specific sense. It is about the institution of the monarchy.
Your reference to Jesus when talking about the institution of Monarchy is a non-sequitur. There is no relation either as an anointed or as a king which he was neither, except for his anointing as part of the People of Israel. (Exod. 4:22,23) "Israel is My son; let My son go that he may serve Me." And here, one won't be in error to add, "To serve Me as My Messiah aka as a kingdom of priest and a Holy Nation." (Exod. 19:6)
Arguments against Biblical infallibility don't make any difference to me. I don't believe in it anyway.
That's not what you convey when talking about the NT.
Question - does that also work the other way round as well? I mean, if the mother is not Jewish, but the father is a Levite? The child is not Jewish by rule, but does he hold the possibility of passing on his Levitical lineage? If he marries a Jewish woman, would the child be viable as a priest?
No, he does not an will not. Judaism is not for Gentiles, unless he or she converts according to Halacha. (Isa. 56:1-8) I mean, if the mother is not Jewish, even if the father was the High Priest, the child is a goy in need of conversion if he wants to join.
I suppose that all sounds a little odd. Call it a personal question.
Okay, a personal question.
Scant evidence. It seems they meant to insult His paternity, but that doesn't make it true. I have an alternate theory, but it is a bit long to try to explain here.
Jesus' paternity was insulted by Paul and all Christianity to the day when Christians exonerate Joseph from having been Jesus' biological father. Hence, John 8:41.
I find it possible to express viable truths and incorporate humor at the same time.
Do you consider John 8:41 the incorporation of humor? If you ask me, it was a sad choice of a stand up comedian.
Not at all. Tell me, do you still hold a grudge against your parents for the spankings you received? Please feel free to apply that logic here.
Absolutely not!