No, it doesn't; not in Holy Catholicism.
That was my point.![]()
It came from without before it was within.
No, it doesn't; not in Holy Catholicism.
That was my point.![]()
It's not within.It came from without before it was within.
It's not within.Virtually no Catholic questions the Trinity. When one crosses oneself, one says, when touching the forehead, "In the name of the Father," and when touching the chest, "And the Son," and when touching the left and right shoulders, "And the Holy Spirit . . . "
. . . Amen.![]()
All right. I just thought it germane to mention that disputes about the Trinity are a uniquely Protestant thing.Let's not derail the thread by turning into one on Catholic catechism.
Thank You.All right. I just thought it germane to mention that disputes about the Trinity are a uniquely Protestant thing.
But aside from that: :carryon:
![]()
All right. I just thought it germane to mention that disputes about the Trinity are a uniquely Protestant thing.
But aside from that: :carryon:
![]()
Because all those so called Arians and semi-Arians in the 4th century were ProtestantsLet's not forget the writings of the Church Fathers in the first three centuries who all maintained that Jesus was not God Almighty and that he was, at some point, born/came into being.
Yeah, and let's also not forget that those Arians saw Jesus Christ as something like the Caped Crusader and less like what modern unitarians profess He was. Modern unitarianism is a brand new, never-heard-of before idea---certainly not in the fourth century, when the "non-Trins" believed something more like, rather, that our Lord's real name was "Kal-El."Because all those so called Arians and semi-Arians in the 4th century were ProtestantsLet's not forget the writings of the Church Fathers in the first three centuries who all maintained that Jesus was not God Almighty and that he was, at some point, born/came into being.
*BUMP*
You can't be the son of someone and not be of that person. This is the obvious folly of trinity deniers that never gets the attention it deserves. If Jesus is the direct Son of God, then he is not an angel or separate deity- he is God.
Let me put it to you this way.
When two parents have a child, their body is of the parents but their soul comes from neither.
For Jesus, the body came from Mary and God, and the soul is literally of the Spirit. That means that Jesus is effectively 100% man and 100% God. This is what makes him the bridge between God and humanity.
It's not merely tradition. If you read the New Testament and compare verses between it and Isaiah, it is impossible to come to any other conclusion than he is God.
But you won't do that homework, because you've decided to be anti-Trinitarian and nothing else will get through to you.
Many of them contradict the Trinity, and none of them teach it.
For instance:
1 Cor 15:20-28 But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22 For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him. 24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.”[c] Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.
This verse both distinguishes the Son from God (not simply "Father", but "God") and establishes a clear hierarchy between the two after his earthly life (so none of that "he was only temporarily made less than God" unbiblical non-sense will work here)
I think that it is problematic that you separate scriptures from the church that canonized them, assuming they make any sense apart from the confessions of the church.
None contradict The Trinity.
The Trinity comprehends ALL scripture.
An unfortunate NIV translation.
Theos is not in the Greek of verse 27, to begin with.
Nope.
God is a sacrifice for humanity.
Deuteronomy 32:39
“See now that I myself am he! There is no god besides me. I put to death and I bring to life, I have wounded and I will heal, and no one can deliver out of my hand.
Isaiah 44:8
Do not tremble, do not be afraid. Did I not proclaim this and foretell it long ago? You are my witnesses. Is there any God besides me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one.”
Isaiah 45:6
so that from the rising of the sun to the place of its setting people may know there is none besides me. I am the Lord, and there is no other.
If God was a trinity, wouldn't He speak of another; but what does He say, He says he knows of no other.
You still accept the existence of the Godhead. Definition (Dictionary.com)
Godhead
[god-hed]
Spell Syllables
Word Origin
noun
1.
the essential being of God; the Supreme Being.
the Holy Trinity of God the Father, Christ the Son, and the Holy Ghost.
I take it you have a problem with the KJV? Do you you feel it to be an invalid translation?The "Godhead" is not actually scriptural. That term is not used in many modern Bibles. "Godhead" is a term used by the KJV translators to twist the meaning of certain verses that speak of the SINGULAR God rather than three. "Godhead" suggests more than one person. It's a sly, subtle trick.
The KJV was produced in 1611. Romans 1:20 is rendered as thus:
"For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse."
The Douay-Rheims Version came out in 1610. Whereas the KJV uses the term "Godhead" in verse 20 of Romans 1, the Douay does not. It renders Romans 1:20 as:
"For the invisible things of him, from the creation of the world, are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made; his eternal power also, and divinity: so that they are inexcusable."
"Godhead" is a fabrication of translators with a definite BIAS. I have quite a number of versions that do not say "Godhead" even at Colossians 2:9.
:nananana:
God head is scriptural, in fact, my phone pulled up Godhead when I began to type it.The "Godhead" is not actually scriptural. That term is not used in many modern Bibles. "Godhead" is a term used by the KJV translators to twist the meaning of certain verses that speak of the SINGULAR God rather than three. "Godhead" suggests more than one person. It's a sly, subtle trick.
The KJV was produced in 1611. Romans 1:20 is rendered as thus:
"For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse."
The Douay-Rheims Version came out in 1610. Whereas the KJV uses the term "Godhead" in verse 20 of Romans 1, the Douay does not. It renders Romans 1:20 as:
"For the invisible things of him, from the creation of the world, are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made; his eternal power also, and divinity: so that they are inexcusable."
"Godhead" is a fabrication of translators with a definite BIAS. I have quite a number of versions that do not say "Godhead" even at Colossians 2:9.
:nananana:
It doesn't matter. Your problem is the papacy; the Holy See; the continuation of Peter's office; the primary Apostle Matthew 16:16. Best regards.The "Godhead" is not actually scriptural.
You are the arch example of someone who is in DENIAL. You just can't see or hear anything but what you are intent on believing, whether it makes sense or not.
The NIV got the meaning right, even though it didn't stick to the exact text in Greek. "Theos" isn't in the Greek in that verse (27) because it didn't need to be. Another version is this:
"All things are subject to him [Jesus], undoubtedly He [that is, God] is excepted who has subjected all things to him." New Catholic Edition
So "God" is not in the verse in the Greek text, but it is plain that it is God who subjected all things TO Jesus. Now, what about the rest of the passage?
:think: