Welcome to TOL, I agree with you. There is only one true God as told in John 17:3.
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I agree too.
Welcome to TOL, I agree with you. There is only one true God as told in John 17:3.
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So what are you trying to say? Or is it sufficient to just muddy the water so it looks like you answered but your answer is ambiguous?
Most of us were taught that in Sunday school, but it is not the truth. Jesus is the Christ, not God. It is hard to see beyond what tradition has instilled in out minds friend,, here on TOL we share and explore what we see in the scriptures. As the Apostle Paul tells us, we have one God, the Father, and one Lord, Jesus Christ. May the Lord open our eyes to his truth and give us a deeper understanding of his words.
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Also, was God's word simply a revelation of himself? Did God's word become flesh? The word was God, and the word became flesh.
The "word" (LOGOS) refers to the "eternal life" that was Jesus Christ himself (1 John 1:1-2). Where it says "the word (LOGOS) became flesh and dwelt among us" (John 1:14), it may be referring to the time after the resurrection when the risen Jesus revealed himself to the disciples as "flesh and bones" (Luke 24:39) and "ate and drank" with them before he ascended into heaven (Acts 10:40-42).
John 1:1,2 is without controversy a deliberate connection to Genesis 1:1. John says that God made everything by His word, and that word was nothing less than a revelation of the will, purpose and power of God.
You're assuming that "the beginning" must refer to the time of the Genesis creation which is contrary to the evidence of how Jesus and the writer of the 4th Gospel usually used the term. For example, Jesus often spoke of "the beginning" as the time when he was with his disciples during his public ministry (e.g. John 6:64; John 8:25; John 15:15; John 16:4).
A number of the other apostolic writers also identified "the beginning" as the time when the public ministry of Jesus "began" (Mark 1:1; Luke 1:2-3; Luke 3:23; Acts 1:21-22). Thus, it's not reasonable to insist the either John 1:1 or 1 John 1:1 must be referring all the way back to Genesis.
He references creation here, so it is without controversy referring to the same beginning that Genesis 1:1 is.
Jesus wasn't with his disciples during the Genesis creation. That is silly. Moreover, John the baptizer could not have been "testifying about the light coming into the world" (John 1:7-9) when he didn't exist during the time of the Genesis creation either.
What you're missing is that the context of the Prologue is about the time when the apostles began to hear the preaching of John the baptizer and to follow Jesus. The allusions to the Genesis creation language are only by analogy. The "beginning" and the "word" and the "light" and the "darkness" throughout the 4th Gospel are actually referring to the circumstances of Jesus' public ministry.
John 1:1-3
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things WERE MADE BY HIM; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
The it (the word) became a Him (according to John 1:14), so John is saying "all things were made by the word". There is no controversy here - "all things were made" is referring to creation. "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth".
[/QUOTE]If you look further in the context of the Prologue, the writer explained what he meant by the "all things were made through him" (John 1:3). In John 1:17, the writer used the same language when he said "grace and truth WERE MADE BY Jesus Christ."
You are misrepresenting the biblical text on several points. First, "all things were made" never refers to "creation" in the 4th Gospel. Second, the verb GINOMAI in John 1:3 doesn't not mean "to create" and does not appear in the text of Genesis 1:1. Third, the pronouns OUTOS and AUTOS do not mean "it" when they are used in a context that refers them to people.
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My point is that an occasional typo in a non-doctrinal issue (the name of a person credited for something, for example) doesn't call into question doctrinal teachings and examples that are corroborated by multiple mentions in scripture.
For example, if multiple scriptures referenced baptism in the titles "Father, Son, and Holy Ghost", then there was one mention of baptism in Jesus name, we could assume that the one mention MAY have been recorded in error.
However, because everyone in Acts was baptized in Jesus' name, by everyone from Peter to Paul, we can be sure that it was the way Jesus trained them to baptize.
If that leads us to the question "what about Matthew 28:19?", we have a few choices:
1. Typo - Jesus never said that
2. Disobedience - Jesus said it but disciples chose to disobey
3. Misunderstanding - the men Jesus trained for 3.5 years, 16 hrs a day got it wrong
4. The apostles obeyed Matthew 28:19 because the name of Jesus IS the name of the Father, the name of the Son, and the name of the Holy Ghost.
#4 is correct because the Bible reinforces that over and over. Colossians 2:9 is one such validation.
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Jude 1:25
To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen.
Also, was God's word simply a revelation of himself? Did God's word become flesh? The word was God, and the word became flesh.
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I have one thank you, So who is the Master and Redeemer, the Messiah? What does that mean?
One quick scripture.
Acts 5:3-4 New King James Version (NKJV)
3 But Peter said, “Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and keep back part of the price of the land for yourself? 4 While it remained, was it not your own? And after it was sold, was it not in your own control? Why have you conceived this thing in your heart? You have not lied to men but to God.”
John 1:1,2 is without controversy a deliberate connection to Genesis 1:1. John says that God made everything by His word, and that word was nothing less than a revelation of the will, purpose and power of God.
God then turned that revelation of his purpose and power into a man, in whom He dwelt without measure. God became man.
You can't deny that the logos of John 1:1 is a reference to God using His word to create the worlds.
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I do deny what you say.
Jesus is not God.
Jesus never claims to be God. He only claims to be the Messiah.
The overwhelming number of Trinity proof texts come from John's gospel and that gospel was written almost 100 years after Jesus walked the earth when the Trins were starting to promote their apostasy. But even then....John's gospel only says it was written to prove Jesus is the Messiah ...NOT God.
He references creation here, so it is without controversy referring to the same beginning that Genesis 1:1 is.
You're simply arguing with scripture. All things were made by him - the Word who became flesh. Of course the pronouns are referring to Him. The it became a Him, no longer referred to as an it.
The verb GINOMAI was used in Matthew 8:13 And Jesus said unto the centurion, Go thy way; and as thou hast believed, so be it done (GINOMAI) unto thee. And his servant was healed in the selfsame hour.
The power of creation in His word.