Epoisses
New member
The 'Law' required sacrifice and offering at the temple at that hasn't existed in 2000 years. No Jew keeps the 'Law' today and no Gentile keeps it either.
This is just a fact that you are either unwilling or unable to comprehend.
The Substitutionary and Representative Work of Christ on Our Behalf
- Thread starter Robert Pate
- Start date
The 'Law' required sacrifice and offering at the temple at that hasn't existed in 2000 years. No Jew keeps the 'Law' today and no Gentile keeps it either.
This is just a fact that you are either unwilling or unable to comprehend.
JonahofAkron
New member
Are you gonna go after her like you did with Jamie?
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Epoisses
New member
What am I bible hitman to you or something?
JonahofAkron
New member
JonahofAkron
New member
I mean, you're definitely not the Biblical answer man.
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Epoisses
New member
lol.
Epoisses
New member
If I put some law on top and sprinkled it with good works you would lap it up like a hostage coming off a hunger strike.
Jesus preached the kingdom of God which is based on grace through faith. (John 1:14)
Paul preached the same gospel of grace through faith as Jesus did or Jesus would have fired him.
Paul was an obedient servant of Jesus Christ and a crown of righteousness awaits him. (2 Timothy 4:8)
Ben Masada
New member
Actually, the gospel of Paul does which is the same as the NT. Read Ephesians 2:15. This is a terrible disservice to the name of Jesus as a Jew because he himself said, "I did not come to abolish the Law and the Prophets but to fulfill them." To fulfill but in the sense of to confirm them down to the letter if you read the whole text of Matthew 5:17-19 and not only 17 which becomes
rather a slander against Jesus. If you read the whole text 5:17-19 several references come to mind that Jesus did not mean "abolish" per se but confirmation of the whole Law to the time of how long are for Heaven and earth to exist.
heir
TOL Subscriber
I know that we are in the but now where the righteousness of God without the law is manifested (Romans 3:21-22 KJV). We are not under the law and never were. No one is under the law today and no one commanded to keep it for salvation.
I also know that the law was very much intact during the time of the Acts of the apostles and know that Israel past and future must keep the law. So for you to say that the law was abolished at the cross is wrong. You should retract the statement.
Epoisses
New member
The veil in the temple was rent at the cross showing that God would no longer accept animal sacrifice after the one true sacrifice had been offered. The Jews continued offering animal sacrifice until the temple was destroyed in 70AD.
heir
TOL Subscriber
It is the wall of partition contained in ordinances handwritten by James (Acts 15), that was abolished between the first group in the Body of Christ and the second (the twain now one new man) having nothing to do with Israel's requirements past or present which most certainly include keeping the law.
Ben Masada
New member
No one Heir! Are you sure that no one has commanded to keep the Law for salvation? How about asking the most important one in your life whom I am sure is Jesus? Am I right? Okay, I am talking about Luke 16:29-31 when Jesus commanded to listen to "Moses" aka the Law." Do you think Jesus was playing a joke on his listeners or serious about listening to "Moses" aka the Law for salvation?
Ben Masada
New member
Wow! Now, all of a sudden, you know that the Law was abolished on the cross. If you don't remember post #79 Epoisses said, "The Law was abolished at the cross' and your reply was, "The Bible does not say that."
Now, to me, you explain that what was abolished on the cross was not the Decalogue but ritual laws. Tell me something; when Paul wrote his letter to the Romans, he said in Romans 7:6 that he had been released from the Law. Do you think he meant ritual or moral Law? If you have "ritual" in mind, wait one more. Later in Romans 10:4, he said that Jesus had been the end of the Law. Which law, the ritual or moral law? Certainly you are thinking about "ritual" but, hold just one more. In Romans 7:1-7 there is an allegory in which Paul compares the Law to a widow who is subject to the law of marriage and becomes free of it when her husband dies. Then Paul compares her dilemma with freedom from the Law at the death of Jesus. Now, tell me, which law was Paul talking about, the Jewish ritual laws or the moral Law of the Decalogue? I am sure you are ready to say "ritual laws" and I tell you, Paul was all the way talking about the Decalogue if you read Romans 7:7. Paul himself mentioned, "Thou shall not covet." Where is the commandment Thou shall not covet if not in the Decalogue? It means that Paul was talking about the Decalogue in Ephesians 2:15; Romans 10:4; Romans 7:6 and 7:1-7.
Do you still think you can debate the Truth with Christian preconceived notions?
The law was abolished on the cross.
While Jesus was dying on the cross God tore the veil that covered the "Holy of Hollies" from the top to the bottom, this signified the end of the Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion, Matthew 27:51.
Lying- again.
"the end of the Old Covenant, the law"
Pate: In Acts, the temple, the feasts, such as Pentecost, that were kept............................................were not part of the Old Covenant, the law...
Translation: Pate does not study the bible-clueless.
C"mon john, isn't the story much better with the law being abolished ?
Yes, PJ.....It sounds oh so "spiritual." Hmmphhh...
Ben Masada
New member
No, it was not! The Talmud was written between 200 BCE and 200 ACE. Only in the Talmud could this strange idea be recorded. You can read every single page of the Talmud, there is nothing at all about this Christian midrash. I think you better stay with the gospel of Paul aka the NT. The veil of the Temple was never torn but when the Romans set fire to the whole thing itself. Besides, nothing happened to the Temple for the next 40 years since the death of Jesus. It means that the death of Jesus on the cross did nothing to stop the sacrifices.