genuineoriginal
New member
What do you have to back up this notion that Jesus set a standard of sinlessness in answer to a trap based upon the letter of the Law?
I can't accept a doctrine that is based on a single verse as being a valid doctrine.His words. What he literally declared to the crowd that had them turn away.
Do you have any additional scriptural support for the idea that Jesus implemented a new standard of sinlessness?
Speculating on what Jesus could have done instead of what He did is a pointless exercise in futility.
The possible options you provided for Jesus to do would have ended with the death of the woman and you discounted any other explanation that would have resulted in the woman living because you thought it would have made Jesus into the "worst type of lawyer" simply because He had a superior knowledge of the Law.I don't agree with that at all. It's like saying there's no value in considering what he does against any other course of action that has meaning. That's not reasonable. In any event, I'm largely speaking to what he did, with consideration given to what would appear to me to be more reasonable (and why) if he had another intent, the intent you believe is true.
It looks more like you were trying to play "Devils advocate" against our explanations instead of trying to provide a reasonable explanation of your own.
My understanding of the matter is echoed in many commentaries about the passage.I don't think your understanding of the narrative works very well. From the legalists who don't know simple, foundational necessaries, to the absence of comment on the law by Christ.
All of the commentaries that refer to Leviticus 20:10 are based on a similar understanding that the commandment in that verse was the most significant thing Jesus used to defeat the trap because it put the scribes and Pharisees in violation of the very Law that they were asking Jesus about.
The Current Perversion of John 8:1-11 This passage has been perverted in a number of egregious ways. First, this statement by Christ was hijacked to minimize adultery. “Oh, we all sin,” it is claimed. Here’s their line of reasoning. “In the instance of John 8:1-11, a woman committed adultery, but Jesus did not condemn her. We should not, therefore, make a ‘big deal’ over such a trifling and personal matter.” Others “paint” with an even broader brush. They allege that no one who is flawed himself by sin has the right to censure anyone for any transgression; after all, none of us is “without sin.” No one, therefore, possesses the moral authority to condemn. We believe, therefore, that a careful consideration of this context is warranted. It is more than obvious that the scribes and Pharisees were not the least interested in seeing true justice executed. Had they been in pursuit of justice, they would have taken the woman to the appropriate authorities for remedy. What did Jesus of Nazareth have to do with such legal affairs? Nothing at all. No, this was a trap laid for Christ. The accusers committed a colossal tactical blunder. Their charge itself contained information sufficient to expose their hypocrisy. The scribes and Pharisees emphatically declared that the poor woman had been caught “in the very act.” That is significant. When the Jewish leaders decided to be so specific, “in the very act,” they acknowledged an important point: they knew the identity of the male participant! What is the significance of that? Well, it is this: the Old Testament code demanded that both the adulteress and the adulterer be subjected to the same penalty (see Leviticus 20:10; Deuteronomy 22:22). Where, then, was the man? These sanctimonious prosecutors were themselves in stark violation of the law. Had Jesus been under a commission to render a civil judgment in this case, he could not have countenanced this “kangaroo” procedure. The thrust of Christ’s statement—“He that is without sin . . .”—was this: “None of you is in a position to stone this woman, for you have disregarded the very law you profess to honor. It is a travesty.” |
In this commentary, the author puts forth the supposition that the scribes and Pharisees were so intent in springing their trap that they didn't realize that they themselves were violating the commandment until Jesus spoke the words "he that is without sin".
That would answer your objections about my narrative having "legalists who don't know simple, foundational necessaries".