Kevin
New member
Hope,
I was trying to show how rediculous you were being for using this verse against Fransico. You were being literal and called him a hypocryte. To show the how rediculous your assertion was, I was being just as literal as you. After all, in the context of that passage, the rich young man was told to sell all and follow Christ - as in physically come with Him.
Of course I'm not saying we can't follow Christ just because he's not here on earth. But like I said, in the context, it was literally phyiscally following Christ, and again, I was using it so show how rediculousness of your agrument.
Then why did you try and use it again Fransico, who advocates, like me, the necessity of following Christ's commandments? If you use something to try and defeat an argument, then you should be ready when your opponent shows you evidence to the contrary. You called him a hypcryte for not obeying that commandment, so I used the Timothy verse to show how bad you were missapplying it.
You are comparing apples to oranges. Christ told the rich man to sell all because He knew that he valued riches more than to follow Christ.
The people in Acts 2:44-45 sold their posessions and divided them up so that nodoby would be in need.
Doesn't deserve an answer? Whatever. Your silence speaks for itself. I see it, and everybody else sees it too. And yes, I undertand what I read just fine.
Hey, when you meet Christ in Judgement Day, you sould tell Him that He shouldn't have casted those people in Matt. 25:41-46 in Hell for their lack of good works towards man. And just in case you are going to try and say these people were under the Law, don't bother. This event speaks of Judgement Day (verse 32), a future event that hasn't even happen yet, well after the death on the cross.
The people at Pentecost were baptized in the name of the Lord, which is not John's baptism. Baptism in the name of the Lord... that's the same baptism that was performed in Acts 19:5 when people were rebaptized after the preaching of Paul.
I'll agree that were not under the Mosaic Law, but what does that have to do with water baptism in the name of the Lord? That was instituted AFTER the death on the cross. Why do you think the apostles went around performing this baptism on newly converted disciples after the death on the cross?
Your dispy theory just isn't true. The apostles had the same message for ALL nations:
Luke 24:46-47
46) And He said to them, So it is written, and so it behoved Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead the third day,
47) and that repentance and remission of sins should be proclaimed in His name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
It's quite clear that repentance and remission of sins should be proclaimed in His name (by BAPTISM in His name) amoung ALL nations (which includes the ones Paul preached to), beginning at Jerusalem - PENTECOST.
There's not even the SLIGHTEST hint that another gospel would replace the one at Pentecost. It was to begin there, and go to ALL nations - the same message. Paul preached Christ and Him crucifed, and so did Peter. Peter baptized in the name of the Lord (Acts 2:38), Paul baptized in the name of the Lord (Acts 19:5).
Ok, Hope, let's continue on with your point of view. Well, once we sell all that we have, we have to follow Christ around. Well, there's one little problem: Christ isn't here on earth anymore to follow as he told the rich young ruler!
Are you telling me it is not possible to follow Christ because He is no longer on the earth? Silly you.
I was trying to show how rediculous you were being for using this verse against Fransico. You were being literal and called him a hypocryte. To show the how rediculous your assertion was, I was being just as literal as you. After all, in the context of that passage, the rich young man was told to sell all and follow Christ - as in physically come with Him.
Of course I'm not saying we can't follow Christ just because he's not here on earth. But like I said, in the context, it was literally phyiscally following Christ, and again, I was using it so show how rediculousness of your agrument.
If we are to sell all as Christians, then how are we to provide for our families? Was Timothy missing something when he said:
Hold your horses Kevin, I said we are not required to obey that command.
Then why did you try and use it again Fransico, who advocates, like me, the necessity of following Christ's commandments? If you use something to try and defeat an argument, then you should be ready when your opponent shows you evidence to the contrary. You called him a hypcryte for not obeying that commandment, so I used the Timothy verse to show how bad you were missapplying it.
Don't be deceived, Christ did mean what He said when He told the rich man to sell "all" that He had and at Pentecost they believed and obeyed.
And "all that believed" were together, and had all things common; Acts 2:44
And "sold their possessions and goods", and parted them to all men, as every man had need. Acts 2:45
You are comparing apples to oranges. Christ told the rich man to sell all because He knew that he valued riches more than to follow Christ.
The people in Acts 2:44-45 sold their posessions and divided them up so that nodoby would be in need.
The rest of your post doesn't deserve an answer. I wonder if you have the ability to understand what you read.
Doesn't deserve an answer? Whatever. Your silence speaks for itself. I see it, and everybody else sees it too. And yes, I undertand what I read just fine.
Hey, when you meet Christ in Judgement Day, you sould tell Him that He shouldn't have casted those people in Matt. 25:41-46 in Hell for their lack of good works towards man. And just in case you are going to try and say these people were under the Law, don't bother. This event speaks of Judgement Day (verse 32), a future event that hasn't even happen yet, well after the death on the cross.
They also still believed in a water baptism for the remission of sins(Mark 1:4) as taught by the Baptist before the cross.
The people at Pentecost were baptized in the name of the Lord, which is not John's baptism. Baptism in the name of the Lord... that's the same baptism that was performed in Acts 19:5 when people were rebaptized after the preaching of Paul.
We are no longer under the law for remission. Christ has provided a better way for what the law could not do His death made possible.
I'll agree that were not under the Mosaic Law, but what does that have to do with water baptism in the name of the Lord? That was instituted AFTER the death on the cross. Why do you think the apostles went around performing this baptism on newly converted disciples after the death on the cross?
Your dispy theory just isn't true. The apostles had the same message for ALL nations:
Luke 24:46-47
46) And He said to them, So it is written, and so it behoved Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead the third day,
47) and that repentance and remission of sins should be proclaimed in His name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
It's quite clear that repentance and remission of sins should be proclaimed in His name (by BAPTISM in His name) amoung ALL nations (which includes the ones Paul preached to), beginning at Jerusalem - PENTECOST.
There's not even the SLIGHTEST hint that another gospel would replace the one at Pentecost. It was to begin there, and go to ALL nations - the same message. Paul preached Christ and Him crucifed, and so did Peter. Peter baptized in the name of the Lord (Acts 2:38), Paul baptized in the name of the Lord (Acts 19:5).
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