Many read the Bible and INSIST that we take every word literally (when it suits their point of view).
I do like to take the Bible as literally as possible, but not to the extreme of trying to apply it like a maths formula where "all" = infinite, and "none" = 0.
This insistence is particularly loud when it comes to extreme words such as "all" or "none".
To prove that the Bible uses such words as we usually do in everyday language, just do a search for scriptures using "all" and it is clear that the word seldom means each and every, with the exclusion of nothing.
Yet the mathematical exegesists will insist that when God says "all" He means "all - with the exclusion of none".
Look at the following scriptures and a natural reading would make it sound ridiculous to insist that "all" means more than "most".
Matthew 2:3 When Herod the king had heard these things, he was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him.
Was there not one person (even a 2 year old) not troubled?
Matthew 2:4 And when he had gathered all the chief priests and scribes of the people together, he demanded of them where Christ should be born.
Does this not mean "most"? Will anyone insist that no scribe might have been away or sick?
Matthew 3:5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan,
Did every single person of Judaea go to see Jesus? Obviously not.
Likewise do your own search for "none" and other all inclusive words like "always" to see that Bible writers use these words like we do today, and like mankind has always done.