My 4th grade reading of this says that the question is about parables, which your answer ignores.
Here it is again. Did or did not Christ ALWAYS speak to them ONLY in parables?
Matthew 13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:
Yes that means exactly what it says. When Jesus spoke to the multitudes he spoke in parables only.