How could Jesus have forgiven a sin that was not committed against him?
every sin is committed against God
and Jesus is God :duh:
you bin here six years - aren't you paying attention at all?
How could Jesus have forgiven a sin that was not committed against him?
every sin is committed against God
and Jesus is God :duh:
you bin here six years - aren't you paying attention at all?
every sin is committed against God
and Jesus is God :duh:
you bin here six years - aren't you paying attention at all?
How could Jesus have forgiven a sin that was not committed against him? The wife was not his but of someone else. He himself instructed that if one goes to the Temple to plea for forgiveness of his sins, that he ought rather to leave every thing behind and go to whom he had offended and get forgiveness for his sin. Then and only then he could return to proceed with his plea for forgiveness. That's in Mat. 5:23,24.
He didn't forgive the sin. He said He did not condemn her to the penalty of sin after no one qualified to throw the first stone. If someone could've thrown it He would have let her get rock piled.
Oh! I thought Jesus was a Jew. As I can see, you are more of a fundamentalist than Paul and myself. Paul taught that he was the son of God. (Acts 9:20) Who is telling the truth among the three of us?
Listen Intojoy, this was only a parable. You know that Jesus used to teach in parables. The object was to point to the sins of the Pharisees; hence the reason why they could not throw the first stone. Only a parable. Nothing literal happened that day. The Sanhedrin did not work that way and no one could interfere with a decision from the Sanhedrin. Besides, stoning one to death could not happen at that time because Rome had removed the jurisdiction of the People to condemn one to death. Israel at that time was a Roman province. Only Rome could sentence one to death.
The Law of Moses is based on a presumption of innocence. There was no testimony against the woman. She was acquitted by the law.
Agreed!
The Law of Two Witnesses was meant to ensure that a solid presumption of innocence was upheld.
Deuteronomy 19:16-20 16 If a false witness rise up against any man to testify against him that which is wrong; 17 Then both the men, between whom the controversy is, shall stand before the Lord, before the priests and the judges, which shall be in those days; 18 And the judges shall make diligent inquisition: and, behold, if the witness be a false witness, and hath testified falsely against his brother; 19 Then shall ye do unto him, as he had thought to have done unto his brother: so shalt thou put the evil away from among you. 20 And those which remain shall hear, and fear, and shall henceforth commit no more any such evil among you. |
Jesus on Divorce: ... 'Divorce was a controversial topic in Jesus' day, with two main schools of thought, centered around two of its most famous proponents. The first was the school of Rabbi Shammai (a more strict and unpopular view) and second was the school of Rabbi Hillel (a more lax and popular view). ... Under the thinking of Hillel, "a man could divorce his wife if she spoiled his dinner, if she spun, or went with unbound hair, or spoke to men in the streets, if she spoke disrespectfully of his parents in his presence, or if she was a brawling woman whose voice could be heard in the next house. Rabbi Akiba even went the length of saying…that a man could divorce his wife if he found a woman whom he liked better and considered more beautiful." (Barclay) ... Each school of thought understood that the Mosaic law gave permission for divorce in Deuteronomy 24:1: When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house. Each side knew and believed Deuteronomy 24:1; the question was, "What constitutes uncleanness?" The school of Rabbi Shammai understood that uncleanness meant sexual immorality, and said this was the only valid reason for divorce. The school of Rabbi Hillel understood uncleanness to mean any sort of indiscretion; even to the point where for some rabbis, burning a husband's breakfast was considered valid grounds for divorce. ... So in their question, the Pharisees tried to get Jesus to side with one teaching or the other. If He agreed with the lax school of Rabbi Hillel, it was clear that Jesus did not take the Law of Moses seriously. If He agreed with the strict school of Rabbi Shammai, then Jesus might become unpopular with the multitude, who generally liked access to an easy divorce. The religious leaders had reason to believe they had caught Jesus on the horns of a dilemma. The Pharisees wanted to talk about divorce and rabbinical opinions, but Jesus wanted to go back to the Scriptures... "By answering the question, not from Shammai or Hillel, but from Moses, our blessed Lord defeated their malice, and confounded their devices." (Clarke) ... Jesus interpreted the meaning of the word uncleanness in the Mosaic Law, showing that it refers to sexual immorality, not just anything that might displease the husband. Therefore, divorce - and the freedom to remarry without sin - is only permitted in the case of sexual immorality. ... To this permission for divorce, the Apostle Paul added the case of abandonment by an unbelieving spouse (1st Cor. 7:15). We note that incompatibility, not loving each other anymore, brutality, and misery are not grounds for divorce, though they may be proper grounds for a separation and consequent "celibacy within marriage" as Paul indicates in 1 Corinthians 7:11. These words of Paul show us that a Christian couple may in fact split up for reasons that do not justify a Biblical divorce. It may be because of a misguided sense of spirituality; it may be because of general unhappiness, or conflict, or abuse, or misery, addiction, or poverty. Paul recognizes (without at all encouraging) that one might depart in such circumstance, but they cannot consider themselves divorced, with the right to remarry, because their marriage had not split up for reasons that justify a Biblical divorce. |
6 If your very own brother, or your son or daughter, or the wife you love, or your closest friend secretly entices you, saying, “Let us go and worship other gods” (gods that neither you nor your ancestors have known, 7 gods of the peoples around you, whether near or far, from one end of the land to the other), 8 do not yield to them or listen to them. Show them no pity. Do not spare them or shield them. 9 You must certainly put them to death. Your hand must be the first in putting them to death, and then the hands of all the people.10 Stone them to death, because they tried to turn you away from the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery. 11 Then all Israel will hear and be afraid, and no one among you will do such an evil thing again. ... - Deut. 13:6-11 (NIV) |
I'm lisnin
Matthew traces the events of Mt 12. The parabolic method of teaching was instituted after this event.
What kind of Jew was Jesus, Ben Masada?
Jesus was of the kind of Jews who lived according to the Law and the Prophets. (Mat. 5:17-19)
There are Ashkenazi Jews who were Gentile proselytes into Judaism, descendants of Noah's great grandson, Ashkenaz (Genesis 9:27, 10:2, 3, 4, Genesis 10:5 KJV). There were Israelite Jews, descendants of the patriarch sons of Jacob Israel. There were Pharzite Jews, descendants of Pharez, eldest twin son of Judah and his daughter-in-law, Tamar (Genesis 38:11, 24, 26, 29). King David and Jesus were descendants of Pharez, eldest twin son of Judah and Tamar (Matthew 1:2, 3, 4, 5, 6).
Since I know you don't have a quote to post as an evidence that Jesus was from the Tribe of Judah, he was only a Jew without a Tribe in Israel. Those were of the Jews whose fathers were from the Gentiles. Jews because of the mother but without a Tribe in Israel.
Wasn't Judah the prophesied progenitor of Messiah (Isaiah 65:9 KJV)? Then, what about Judah's Shelanite descendants (Numbers 26:20 KJV) via his Canaanite wife (Genesis 38:1, 2, 1Chronicles 2:3)? Were they "Jews"? The Shelanites were conceived contrary to Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, as Ezra affirmed some 1,400 years later according to Ezra 9:1, 2, 7. Were the Shelanites, "Jews"? Ezra distinctly EXCLUDED "The sons of Shelah son of Judah..." (1Chronicles 4:21, 22) from among the tribe of Judah in 1Chronicles 4:1 KJV, even though Shelah was elder to Pharez.
As I have explained above, Jesus was not from the Tribe of Judah and, for that matter he could not have been the Messiah.
Were the Shelanites ancestrally intact Israelites conceived contrary to Moses and Ezra? Were the Shelanites ancestrally intact "Jews"? Do you see any correlation with Revelation 2:9, 3:9? Was King David a Jew, then? When you claim Jesus was a Jew, and He being a Pharzite Jew as was King David, then you evidently agree the descendants of Shelah, third and surviving CANAANITE son of Judah (Genesis 38:6, 7, 8, 9, 10), were NOT Jews.
You need to solve this problem of yours with the NT which exonerated Jesus from being a biological son of Joseph and, for that matter, made of him a descendant of Gentiles. (Mat. 1:18)
Can you please explain the ancestral origin of the Sephardic Jews beginning with Noah's sons until Jesus' day? Did the Sephardic Jews just sprout out of the ground (Genesis 38:9 KJV)? See, Ben, the Sephardic alleged Jews, who instigated the crucifixion of Jesus (John 8:33 KJV, definitely NOT Israelites, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV), were actually Shelanites who'd usurped the position of God's chosen Israelites (Deuteronomy 7:6, 7, 8, 9, 10). How do you figure the Shelanite/Sephardic alleged Jews are the ones from whom salvation comes?
Again, the NT speaks of Jesus as of having been born as a result of fornication. (John 8:41) Josephus speaks of a vast number of bastard Jews as a result of rapes of young Jewish ladies in Israel in the First Century by the Romans. I don't want to waste my time trying to find out about the origins of the Tribes when it won't help in the case of Jesus.
Were the Sephardic alleged Jews descendants of Judah and his Canaanite wife via their son, Shelah? Or, were the Sephardic alleged Jews descendants of Judah and his daughter-in-law Tamar via their eldest twin son Pharez as was King David a descendant?
Sephardic Jews or Ashkenazy ones can be found in many different tribes. No special connection with Judah or any other specific Tribe.
:thumb:However, there is another O.T. Law, more general and far-reaching in scope,
that ALSO covers adultery and governs legal procedure.
Its Deuteronomy 13:6-21. This law includes Adultery without mentioning
that word specifically, and encompasses a set of procedures that all
such cases ought to conform to in appropriate community situations.
Here is the first part:
6 If your very own brother, or your son or daughter, or the wife you love, or your closest friend secretly entices you, saying, “Let us go and worship other gods” (gods that neither you nor your ancestors have known, 7 gods of the peoples around you, whether near or far, from one end of the land to the other), 8 do not yield to them or listen to them. Show them no pity. Do not spare them or shield them. 9 You must certainly put them to death. Your hand must be the first in putting them to death, and then the hands of all the people.10 Stone them to death, because they tried to turn you away from the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery. 11 Then all Israel will hear and be afraid, and no one among you will do such an evil thing again. ...
- Deut. 13:6-11 (NIV)
At first glance, this does not seem to be about adultery.
However, the commandment against Adultery (Exod. 20:14, Deut. 5:18)
is given as one of the Ten Commandments
which DEFINE the God of Israel, His nature, His very Identity:
Jehovah is the Biblical God, the God of the Ten Commandments.
As a consequence, anyone leading others to break those commandments,
is proposing the abandonment of the worship of the Biblical God,
and the turning towards 'another god', a non-Biblical god, a false god,
and an idol.
Adultery is just a single special case of general Idolatry,
and therefore it falls under the authority of this wider Law.
And in the actual historical context of foreigners in the land
worshipping 'other gods' through temple prostitution and
celebrations of fornication etc., its clear that the main lure
into the worship of other gods was sex, i.e., fornication and adultery.
This was often done 'in secret' inside temples for the purpose of illicit sex,
and prostitution and harlotry.
Israelite men were lured into these temples under a promise of secrecy
and discretion, while Israelite women were lured under a promise of
money and/or threats and blackmail.
Conspirators typically would approach individuals alone,
and sexual crimes like adultery would take place inside homes
and dwellings in private and not visible to the larger community.
Adultery would typically be discovered and reported by those
in the household where the crime occurred, and the head of that house
would be held 'responsible' and accountable, and need to prove
their own innocence in the matter.
One way to force the patriarch, home-owner, husband, or father
into account was to require that THEY be the first to cast a stone
at their own daughter or wife, to prove their loyalty to the Law and God,
and their innocence and/or ignorance of what had been transpiring
in their own house under their nose.
This act was mandatory for the stoning according to this Law,
and ensured that mere accusations from outside parties could not
wreck homes and falsely have people killed for alterior motives or grievances.
And this act of throwing the First Stone was a self-testimony of the
appropriate male in charge of his own innocence in the matter,
and his belief in the accused's guilt.
Thus the expression of Jesus,
"The One Without Sin, Let him cast the first stone at her."
Refers directly to this overruling and preemptory Law,
required especially for the case of adultery, which was typically committed
inside someone's house, home, or private property away from the
eyes of the community.
It was not the absence of the male party in the adultery per se,
which could be simply explained on the basis that
the man was ALWAYS put to death when found guilty of adultery,
and may have already been executed, or could simply have escaped,
which would by no means exonerate the woman.
It was the absence of the OVERSEER, the HomeOwner, the Property Manager,
the Father, the Husband, the Guardian(!) which meant
that no stoning could proceed.
It was THIS man's innocence that must be publicly declared
along with his testimony to the guilt of the accused party,
and consummated by an act which initiated an execution.
It was THIS man's authority that must be thoroughly investigated,
and the crime on his watch explained.
For it must also be remembered that EVERY woman in Israel
was according to the Law of Moses under someone's authority,
supervision, and responsibility, including widows!
A woman was to live with and be under the authority of her father
until marriage, or the patriarch of the household or extended tribe.
A woman was under the authority of her husband during marriage,
with all contracts and permissions requiring his knowledge and assent.
A woman was under the authority of the tribe, king, and priesthood,
when she was widowed, and there were rules for remarriage and
distribution of inheritance of the family line. In cases of dire poverty,
widows had recourse to judges who could impose taxes and provide
food and shelter in Israel.
Thus no Israelite woman was 'free' to wander under her own authority,
and no property in Israel was not under the authority of some adult
and recognized male authority.
Only this man, could by his presence initiate a stoning,
he who had authority over the woman, who lived with the woman,
and who was required to instruct and discipline the woman
as to the Law of God and acceptable behaviour within the community.
Is there a summation?
Is the conclusion that the Jesus did not condemn her because the Law did not allow it?