On the omniscience of God

Clete

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Use your concordance on 'to see.' We don't want to extrapolate too far what English tells us. "To approve, to validate," etc. are well within the scope here. We don't want to proof-text our theology from not grasping the full meaning of any one word, without scrutiny. "Before a word is on my tongue, You know it well" seems a good indicator that we go further in our examination of what our take-away from any given text must inform. One objection is over these specifics because "To see" is an English-driven idea that doesn't convey as well as perhaps an explanatory paragraph from Strongs 'observe' doesn't mean 'to see' on point and perhaps our theology is short-sheeted from grasping the actual word we are trying to convey.
Rather than simply saying that something needs to be done, why don't you do it? If "to see" isn't correct, then what is?

I asked Chat GPT a similar question because I don't have the time it would take to look it up myself. Here's the answer I got....

The phrase "to see" in Genesis 2:19 comes from the Hebrew word לִרְאוֹת (lir'ot), which is derived from the verb רָאָה (ra'ah), meaning "to see" or "to observe." The specific verse in Hebrew is:​
וַיָּבֵא אֶל־הָאָדָם לִרְאוֹת מַה־יִּקְרָא־לוֹ "And He brought [them] to the man to see what he would call them."

Meaning and Accuracy:​

  1. Literal Meaning of "To See": The word רָאָה is primarily visual, meaning "to look at," "to observe," or "to perceive." In this context, it suggests God was "observing" or "watching" what Adam would name the animals.
  2. Implications in Context:
    • The use of לִרְאוֹת implies a sense of anticipation or interest in Adam's action.
    • It may carry a connotation of God allowing Adam to exercise creativity and dominion, observing his choice without dictating it.
  3. Accuracy of Translation:
    • "To see" is a very accurate translation of לִרְאוֹת in English.
    • However, some translations may add interpretive elements to convey the relational or participatory nature of the event, such as "to see what he would name them" (NIV) or "to see what he would call them" (ESV).

Theological Significance:​

The phrase implies a participatory relationship between God and Adam, highlighting human agency. God is not prescribing the names but rather witnessing Adam's exercise of the authority given to him (Genesis 1:28). This relational dynamic supports a broader understanding of God's interaction with creation as one that involves genuine response and freedom.​
I'd have to say that I agree with every syllable of that and would be willing to bet that you can't refute any of it.



🆙 We alternatively draw conclusions that aren't the same. I've gone into the text for instance with God saying "Now I know." The Hebrew word and English given do not match up. Am I better translator? No, other than I'd have given a lot of footnotes whenever an idea didn't quite convey in English what the text actually meant. It is my estimation that many OV paradigms come from not digging deeper and looking at original words and intent. Granted we get a good basic idea from English what was transpiring, but we have to dig beyond before we make up a theology system. If it is based on a limited scope of English meaning, it is problematic. Do I have some of these in my theology? Undoubtedly so I look forward to correction and discussions such as these.

I asked the same question concerning the phrase "now I know" in Genesis 22:12. Here's the answer I got.......

In Genesis 22:12, the phrase "now I know" comes from the Hebrew עַתָּה יָדַעְתִּי (attah yada'ti), where:​
  • עַתָּה (attah) means "now."
  • יָדַעְתִּי (yada'ti) is the first-person singular perfect form of יָדַע (yada), meaning "to know."
The full Hebrew phrase is:​
כִּי עַתָּה יָדַעְתִּי כִּי יְרֵא אֱלֹהִים אַתָּה "For now I know that you fear God."

Meaning and Accuracy:​

  1. Literal Meaning of "Now I Know":
    • The verb יָדַע (yada) generally means "to know," and in this form, it expresses completed action: "I have come to know" or "I now know."
    • The word עַתָּה (now) emphasizes the timing—this knowledge is newly confirmed at the moment of Abraham's demonstrated obedience.
  2. Accuracy of Translation:
    • "Now I know" is a very accurate rendering of the Hebrew phrase.
    • Some translations might interpret or paraphrase it slightly to emphasize the implication of experiential knowledge, e.g., "I see now" or "I have come to know."

Interpretive Considerations:​

  • Theological and Philosophical Implications:
    • The phrase suggests that God’s knowledge in this context is relational or experiential. While classical theism often asserts that God has exhaustive foreknowledge, this passage appears to highlight a dynamic where God's "knowing" is tied to Abraham’s actions unfolding in real time.
    • Some interpret this as anthropomorphic language—a way of describing God's interaction with human events in terms that humans can understand. Others see it as a genuine instance of God experiencing and responding to human choices.
  • Open Theism and Relational Theology:
    • In views like Open Theism, this phrase aligns well with the idea that God's knowledge includes knowing possibilities and experiencing events as they happen, allowing genuine human freedom.
    • The emphasis on "now" points to a specific moment where Abraham’s reverence for God is not just theoretically known but confirmed through action.
In summary, "now I know" is an accurate and straightforward translation of the Hebrew, but its deeper implications have sparked significant theological reflection on the nature of God's knowledge and relationship with creation.​

It is fascinating to note that I DID NOT mention anything about Open Theism in my question! In fact, here's the verbatim prompt that I entered into Chat GPT....

"When the bible says that God had Adam name the animals "to see" what he would call them, what is it in the original language that is translated "to see" and just how accurate a translation is that into English?", and to get the second response, I simply entered, "Same question concerning the phrase "now I know" in Gen 22:12."​
 

Clete

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Sadly, I'm that guy. Attah (Hebrew) doesn't unerringly mean 'now I know! (now) as the only translation word.' Rather, like most Hebrew words, it has a broader meanings. "Since" I know, for example. Did a translator mean to intimate that God could not know the heart? We've pitted against the idea in this very thread, between us with scriptural support from the Open View, that God does know our hearts and is greater than them. Does it make logical sense, that God could not or did not know Abraham would follow through? Did Abraham make his servant wait while he and Isaac went further? Sticks for a burnt offering? Can it truly be, from assertion, that God didn't know what Abraham was about to do until "now?" Even if "Now" were the proper English equivalent, would we yet assume on at the point of striking the match was the point of 'knowing?' Could God have even known then, after stopping the act? What if Abraham were to recant and put out the fire in disobedience? "Lord! I cannot do it!" IOW "Now" I believe is not a good translation because it makes less logical sense than other good translation words available.

"When" did God know? How can we be sure, if the Open idea is correct, that God ever knew by the assertion? Isn't it rather and truly because of the paradigm that God knows men's hearts, that we know? If so "now" would not be the best translation of the text, even for Open Theism? "Now" just causes all kinds of trouble to an otherwise straightforward passage. I don't believe translators intended that. The majority of translators were not concerned over Open View paradigms (didn't exist really at the time for their notice). They were trying to convey an idea, and I believe they inadvertently mishandled the translation. "Now" isn't even good for Open View assumptions because of all these problematic ideas, all created because of the English word 'now' which is not problematic in the Hebrew text simply because most Hebrew words have multiple meanings and attah doesn't by any necessity mean "now." It is translated often enough differently into English as "wherefor, since," etc. that we should allow for context and study to inform our take-away. That Open Theism wants/needs to say 'now?' I get it, but I'd suggest this isn't a good prooftext for it.
See my previous post above.

The only thing that I'll add is that all of this two paragraphs of back breaking philosophical knot tying is 100% motivated by your doctrine and NOT the text! It is just one more example of how you read your doctrine into the text. In fact, it is literally a two paragraph exposé on the process your mind uses to do exactly that. It is the opposite of getting your doctrine from the scripture!
 

Lon

Well-known member
Rather than simply saying that something needs to be done, why don't you do it? If "to see" isn't correct, then what is?

I asked Chat GPT a similar question because I don't have the time it would take to look it up myself. Here's the answer I got....

The phrase "to see" in Genesis 2:19 comes from the Hebrew word לִרְאוֹת (lir'ot), which is derived from the verb רָאָה (ra'ah), meaning "to see" or "to observe." The specific verse in Hebrew is:​

Meaning and Accuracy:​

  1. Literal Meaning of "To See": The word רָאָה is primarily visual, meaning "to look at," "to observe," or "to perceive." In this context, it suggests God was "observing" or "watching" what Adam would name the animals.
  2. Implications in Context:
    • The use of לִרְאוֹת implies a sense of anticipation or interest in Adam's action.
    • It may carry a connotation of God allowing Adam to exercise creativity and dominion, observing his choice without dictating it.
  3. Accuracy of Translation:
    • "To see" is a very accurate translation of לִרְאוֹת in English.
    • However, some translations may add interpretive elements to convey the relational or participatory nature of the event, such as "to see what he would name them" (NIV) or "to see what he would call them" (ESV).

Theological Significance:​

The phrase implies a participatory relationship between God and Adam, highlighting human agency. God is not prescribing the names but rather witnessing Adam's exercise of the authority given to him (Genesis 1:28). This relational dynamic supports a broader understanding of God's interaction with creation as one that involves genuine response and freedom.​
I'd have to say that I agree with every syllable of that and would be willing to bet that you can't refute any of it.
Except observe doesn't convey the same meaning in English and is well within the Hebrew meaning. One might argue that 'observe' IS 'to see!' I agree, but we use 'to see' as a colloquialism 'to find out.' So out the gates, no longer does one read 'to see' as simply observing: we've loaded it to mean 'to find out.' I can look to see my children breaking a pinata. Do I know what is in it? Yes, and not the reason for my choosing to see 'what they were going to do.' We've allowed a forcing of the text to go beyond it. Hebrew words generally are not this specific nor do they convey added ideas that weren't there in intent originally. It forces the text to mean "to find out."
Brown-Driver-Briggs' Definition

(BDB is the go-to, Strong's is usually based on)
  1. to see, look at, inspect, perceive, consider
    1. (Qal)
      1. to see
      2. to see, perceive
      3. to see, have vision
      4. to look at, see, regard, look after, see after, learn about, observe, watch, look upon, look out, find out
      5. to see, observe, consider, look at, give attention to, discern, distinguish
      6. to look at, gaze at
    2. (Niphal)
      1. to appear, present oneself
      2. to be seen
      3. to be visible
    3. (Pual) to be seen
    4. (Hiphil)
      1. to cause to see, show
      2. to cause to look intently at, behold, cause to gaze at
    5. (Hophal)
      1. to be caused to see, be shown
      2. to be exhibited to
    6. (Hithpael) to look at each other, face
I asked the same question concerning the phrase "now I know" in Genesis 22:12. Here's the answer I got.......

In Genesis 22:12, the phrase "now I know" comes from the Hebrew עַתָּה יָדַעְתִּי (attah yada'ti), where:​
  • עַתָּה (attah) means "now."
  • יָדַעְתִּי (yada'ti) is the first-person singular perfect form of יָדַע (yada), meaning "to know."
The full Hebrew phrase is:​

Meaning and Accuracy:​

  1. Literal Meaning of "Now I Know":
    • The verb יָדַע (yada) generally means "to know," and in this form, it expresses completed action: "I have come to know" or "I now know."
    • The word עַתָּה (now) emphasizes the timing—this knowledge is newly confirmed at the moment of Abraham's demonstrated obedience.
  2. Accuracy of Translation:
    • "Now I know" is a very accurate rendering of the Hebrew phrase.
    • Some translations might interpret or paraphrase it slightly to emphasize the implication of experiential knowledge, e.g., "I see now" or "I have come to know."

Interpretive Considerations:​

  • Theological and Philosophical Implications:
    • The phrase suggests that God’s knowledge in this context is relational or experiential. While classical theism often asserts that God has exhaustive foreknowledge, this passage appears to highlight a dynamic where God's "knowing" is tied to Abraham’s actions unfolding in real time.
    • Some interpret this as anthropomorphic language—a way of describing God's interaction with human events in terms that humans can understand. Others see it as a genuine instance of God experiencing and responding to human choices.
  • Open Theism and Relational Theology:
    • In views like Open Theism, this phrase aligns well with the idea that God's knowledge includes knowing possibilities and experiencing events as they happen, allowing genuine human freedom.
    • The emphasis on "now" points to a specific moment where Abraham’s reverence for God is not just theoretically known but confirmed through action.
In summary, "now I know" is an accurate and straightforward translation of the Hebrew, but its deeper implications have sparked significant theological reflection on the nature of God's knowledge and relationship with creation.​
BDB once again and follow the link as simply "I know" and therefore possible for attah (since, whereof, etc.)

It is fascinating to note that I DID NOT mention anything about Open Theism in my question! In fact, here's the verbatim prompt that I entered into Chat GPT....

"When the bible says that God had Adam name the animals "to see" what he would call them, what is it in the original language that is translated "to see" and just how accurate a translation is that into English?", and to get the second response, I simply entered, "Same question concerning the phrase "now I know" in Gen 22:12."​
Agree, that is fascinating. I wonder if Boyd has been moonlighting for Chat GPT lately 🤔 :D
 
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Right Divider

Body part
Sadly, I'm that guy. Attah (Hebrew) doesn't unerringly mean 'now I know! (now) as the only translation word.' Rather, like most Hebrew words, it has a broader meanings. "Since" I know, for example.
Yes, it's always someone that knows how to translate better than everyone that came before. :rolleyes:
 

Lon

Well-known member
Yes, it's always someone that knows how to translate better than everyone that came before. :rolleyes:
It is a concordance given. Even 'if' you saw it as 'now,' how did God know even then? We rather are well-aware that God who is greater than our hearts, knows our hearts that you, yourself gave in thread. No? The Septuagint uses νῦν which also isn't exactly 'now' by necessity, but also 'therefore, here after, etc. Whether you agree or not, you agreed/posted 1 John 3:20 says God is greater than our hearts and know(s) everything (at least as far as the extent of all men's hearts). How would/do you reconcile? For me, it seems likely that confusion starts and ends with the English word 'now' especially where such doesn't seem to fit either the immediate text or what truths we do know about God. Does He, in fact know your heart? Your thoughts from afar? How complete is His knowledge of us? Does He have to give us tests to 'get an inkling/good idea?' How 'predictable' are we? How 'known?'
 
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Right Divider

Body part
How? Like you know me? How well do you know me? How do you 'know?' Aren't we intimating at guesswork as such, at best?
You make no sense Lon.... You write a lot but make no logical arguments.

My point was that ONCE Abraham made his intents KNOWN... God knew it. Even before Abraham had to act.

It's so simple that a child can understand it.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Rather, I'm trying to go the scope of the thread: How much does God know before we do it and 'how' does He know it? I John 3:20 "God who is greater than our hearts, knows all things." Omniscience? Something like? How restricted? You said not until after we do something. How is that knowing what I speak before I say it?

The big thread question: How much, if qualified, does God know? What is 'possible' for Him to know? I'm in the omniscience crowd so asking for Open qualifiers. It is your thread. I'm trying to follow the logic and the logic is not clear or straightfoward to me. Should it be? Likely with page 53 now, but there has to be a good write-up on what Open View actually believes God knows. Why? Because even Open Viewers have told me (as you did in thread) God cannot know our thoughts without us revealing them to Him. That is foreign to me and scripture doesn't seem to support it. Another told me that God had no idea where Adam was in the garden. That isn't intelligible to me from scriptures. Etc.

If this thread can stand, it has to be very clear for inspection with few assertions about what they are talking about. If Enyart used "omniscience" in the sense of 'all things knowable' we'd have to know the extent. Was it 'knowable' where Adam was? Did God have to search? Did God have to come down to see if Sodom and Gomorrah were as bad as He heard? Or were those angels of God representative in His stead, etc. etc.

The implications are far-reaching into how we grasp the scriptures and deal with them and what we think of God. Does He know what I need before I pray, thus does prayer reveal a non-need on my part God was unaware of and He just knows the needs? Such will inform how we read all the rest of scripture and understand God's relationship to us. Confusing? Likely should be, but that is why I asked 'how did you become Open Theist?' in a thread. I want to know if any one of you empathizes more readily on this side of the coin. It is a huge hurdle to those of us who believe God is omniscient without a lot of waffling (on our part) in qualification because 'what is knowable' isn't defined readily. We think: "surely God can know where I'm hiding as Adam in the garden if He knows how many hairs are presently on my (Adam's) head." Implications have to be presentable and demonstrable to the extent that it truly challenges against scriptural givens and notions. In Him -Lon
 
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If Enyart used "omniscience" in the sense of 'all things knowable' we'd have to know the extent.
Bob Enyart wrote the following shortly after his debate with James White:

"Valid Definitions for the Quantitative Attributes: While the Bible stresses God's qualitative (living, personal, relational, good, and loving) attributes, biblically consistent definitions for the philosophical quantitative attributes are as follows:
Omniscience: God knows everything knowable that He wants to know.
Omnipresence: God is everywhere that He wants to be.
Omnipotence: God has all power except for that which He has delegated.
Immutability: God cannot change morally (for the worse) and remain our Holy God.
Impeccability: God cannot sin and remain our Holy God.
Impassibility: God has control of His passions.
As for the more technical definition of omnipresence, that all places are present to God, the correct understanding from that perspective is that all places that God wants to be present to Him are present to Him. Regarding presence, the great difference between Creator and creature is that God can be in vastly vastly distant locations simultaneously"
Link

I must own hundreds of hours of his material. Going all the way back to the days of VHS and even audio cassette tapes. The above quote is consistent with the approach Bob always took in his teachings on God's attributes. (I'm sure these things have already been explained in this thread but since we keep bringing up his name we may as well quote what he actually said every once in a while so we don't end up accidentally misrepresenting him)

Was it 'knowable' where Adam was?
Yes

Did God have to search?
God is free to choose to decide how He interacts with man.

Did God have to come down to see if Sodom and Gomorrah were as bad as He heard?
I wouldn't think so. But by Him doing so, it shows that He does not take the destruction of entire cities and the deaths of all who inhabit them, lightly.
And that His involvement with us is much more than just Him sitting on a throne, throwing lighting and brimstone on our heads like Zeus or some other false god.

The implications are far-reaching into how we grasp the scriptures and deal with them and what we think of God.
The implications are really only as far-reaching as we insist that they are. In other words, the ability to formulate an answer to the question "Was it 'knowable' where Adam was?" certainly is not a prerequisite for understanding the Bible. But if you insist that it is then others will have to be equally insistent in explaining to you that it is not.

Does He know what I need before I pray, thus does prayer reveal a non-need on my part God was unaware of and He just knows the needs? Such will inform how we read all the rest of scripture and understand God's relationship to us.
Not at all. You are applying prerequisites to scriptural knowledge and to God's ability to have a relationship with us which simply do not exist.

How much does God know before we do it and 'how' does He know it?

Keep in mind our actions generally do not occur instantly with our thoughts.
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Except observe doesn't convey the same meaning in English and is well within the Hebrew meaning. One might argue that 'observe' IS 'to see!' I agree, but we use 'to see' as a colloquialism 'to find out.' So out the gates, no longer does one read 'to see' as simply observing: we've loaded it to mean 'to find out.' I can look to see my children breaking a pinata. Do I know what is in it? Yes, and not the reason for my choosing to see 'what they were going to do.' We've allowed a forcing of the text to go beyond it. Hebrew words generally are not this specific nor do they convey added ideas that weren't there in intent originally. It forces the text to mean "to find out."
Brown-Driver-Briggs' Definition

(BDB is the go-to, Strong's is usually based on)
  1. to see, look at, inspect, perceive, consider
    1. (Qal)
      1. to see
      2. to see, perceive
      3. to see, have vision
      4. to look at, see, regard, look after, see after, learn about, observe, watch, look upon, look out, find out
      5. to see, observe, consider, look at, give attention to, discern, distinguish
      6. to look at, gaze at
    2. (Niphal)
      1. to appear, present oneself
      2. to be seen
      3. to be visible
    3. (Pual) to be seen
    4. (Hiphil)
      1. to cause to see, show
      2. to cause to look intently at, behold, cause to gaze at
    5. (Hophal)
      1. to be caused to see, be shown
      2. to be exhibited to
    6. (Hithpael) to look at each other, face

BDB once again and follow the link as simply "I know" and therefore possible for attah (since, whereof, etc.)

Agree, that is fascinating. I wonder if Boyd has been moonlighting for Chat GPT lately 🤔 :D
Sorry, Lon but that is just a bunch of rationalizing. There isn't anything in that text that suggests that it isn't translated correctly and that the thought communicated in English isn't completely in keeping with the thought communicated in Hebrew in both of these passage.

What's more is that there are other passages that are just as clear if not clearer that use some of the same words in the same way to communicate the same sort of thing. The simple fact of the matter is that the bible presents to us a God who DOES NOT know everything that there is to know and all your rationalizing is 100% motivated by your preconceived notions about the way you want your god to be.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Sorry, Lon but that is just a bunch of rationalizing. There isn't anything in that text that suggests that it isn't translated correctly and that the thought communicated in English isn't completely in keeping with the thought communicated in Hebrew in both of these passage.

What's more is that there are other passages that are just as clear if not clearer that use some of the same words in the same way to communicate the same sort of thing. The simple fact of the matter is that the bible presents to us a God who DOES NOT know everything that there is to know and all your rationalizing is 100% motivated by your preconceived notions about the way you want your god to be.
I believe this my most important post in this thread and it marks a turning point of meaning and discussion.

Rationalizing is important, we have to wrestle with ideas lest we understand shallowly or wrongly. How do we read "Now I know" without thinking through the implications? If, as OV states, God only knew 'now' because He cannot read minds, could God have possibly known 'now?' To me? A rational human being? He couldn't. The only way God could have known, accordingly, would be for Abraham to plunge the knife if God is so limited in knowledge to actions. It'd have been closer to Christ if God raised Isaac back from the dead and literally the only way, if God is dependent on actions, to 'now know.' The translation 'now' makes no sense of the text, even for an Open Theist (more latter). What does make sense, is that translators didn't use the correct form of attah. It'd simply read "I know" and the problem goes away. Further, translation allows for it.

Rationalizing (the right way) Genesis 3: If God knows the number of hairs on my head, He is omnipresent. No question. We lose about 100 hairs every day. The number of hairs on my head is not an approximation, it is a definite. Add several billion people. God, necessarily is omnipresent.
Now Genesis 3: There is no way, knowing the number of hairs on Adam's head, He didn't know exactly where Adam was. It isn't possible. This and other instances in scripture in which it 'appears' that Open Theists do not think through their speculations well, have always had me eschewing the plausibility of Open Theism altogether. It just does not, add up. It leaves all kinds of oddity logic failures in its wake. The best sense of Genesis 3 and Luke 12:7 is that God must be omnipresent. There is no way, other than omnipresence, that God can know the number of hairs on 8 billion people's heads, without being omnipresent. Nothing else makes any kind of logical sense. And this all from scriptures mind you, no Greek other than the scripture itself.

The best sense of grasping no sparrow falling to the ground among 1 billion without God knowing it is a sense of immanence and omnipresence. Only omnipresence, or something incredibly near can make sense of knowing how many hairs you have on your and I have on my head this second. It'd be weird to think He hops from on to another among billions and counts every second, lest you lose one in the next moment. This then, intimates, from scripture, that God is omniscient on the scope of His omnipresence (why if one omni, logically all omnis, they all tie together this way). So not only scripturally (God who is 'greater' than our hearts knows (greater) all things 1 John 3:20.


Propositional scenario: Okay. You are an Open Theist reading me these two posits for the first time. What do you do with them? Dismiss them outright because they don't agree with your paradigms? Analyze and try to find the holes? Let it question your assumptions?

I've tried to walk many miles to date in Open shoes. To date, they simply do not add up in any cogent way. To date looking at Open Theism, I still cannot know 'now' that God, limited to actions, only 'now' knows Abraham's heart. It causes me, a good logical mind, to question English translation. "Now" simply cannot be the best translation of Attah when BDB gives plenty of other options that are legitimate uses of the Hebrew term. Only explanation? No, but genuinely a good one. It simply makes the best sense, even if I were Open Theist because the translation is what and only causes this problem.
 
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The only way God could have known, accordingly, would be for Abraham to plunge the knife if God is so limited in knowledge to actions.
God knows what is in our hearts.
We can know whether or not someone is trying to kill us without waiting for them to actually kill us. Does that make us omniscient?
It'd be weird to think He hops from on to another among billions and counts every second, lest you lose one in the next moment.
Right! And the reason why nobody thinks that is because there is nothing illogical about believing God can be at more than one place at a time without Him having to be everywhere at the same time.

God can know the hairs on our head without being in a whirlwind or a fire or an earthquake.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I believe this my most important post in this thread and it marks a turning point of meaning and discussion.

Rationalizing is important, we have to wrestle with ideas lest we understand shallowly or wrongly.
"Rationalizing" is to understand shallowly or wrongly, by definition.

You don't get to redefine words that have bad connotations to them just because they apply to what you want to do.

How do we read "Now I know" without thinking through the implications?
You seem to do it all the time! The implications do not trump the direct meaning of the text, Lon! The implications can be anything you want to imply!

If, as OV states, God only knew 'now' because He cannot read minds, could God have possibly known 'now?' To me? A rational human being? He couldn't.
Saying it doesn't make it so. Reality is not about "to me" or anything similar to that. Reality is what it is. It is objective and your personal opinions don't have anything to do with it.

NO OPEN THEIST ANYWHERE OR AT ANY TIME HAS EVER SAID OR EVEN SUGGESTED THAT GOD CANNOT READ MINDS!!!!

That is the most ridiculous claim I've seen you make this week. Well, it's Sunday today! It's the most ridiculous claim I've seen you make is several days, perhaps a month.

The only way God could have known, accordingly, would be for Abraham to plunge the knife if God is so limited in knowledge to actions.
Nonsense. We know for a fact how God came to know. The incident is recorded for us in God's word. Why is it that you cannot believe the words on the page, Lon?

It'd have been closer to Christ if God raised Isaac back from the dead and literally the only way, if God is dependent on actions, to 'now know.'
This is just stupidity. Yeah, God could have raised Isaac from the dead but then He would have been the God that ordered actual human sacrifice and for Abraham to actually murder his "only" son. Talk about not thinking through the implications! I mean come on, Lon! As it is, God finds out that Abraham was willing to make the same decision that He made before the foundation of the world and He got to have just a beautifully awesome parallel story to put into the pages of the bible as both prophesy and proof of what we now call the gospel. The way God directed that scene was brilliant to the point of perfection!

The translation 'now' makes no sense of the text, even for an Open Theist (more latter).
It makes absolutely perfect sense! Deciding that you're going to obey is great, actually doing it is greater. God waited until Abraham was in the act before stopping him. As I said, PERFECT!

What does make sense, is that translators didn't use the correct form of attah.
Except that they totally did use the correct term, which I have already established.

It'd simply read "I know" and the problem goes away. Further, translation allows for it.
Except that this isn't what the text says! It actually does say, "NOW I know". That isn't an opinion. That isn't wishful thinking. That isn't rationalization. It is a pure fact!

Rationalizing (the right way) Genesis 3:
There is no such thing as a right way to rationalize.

If God knows the number of hairs on my head, He is omnipresent. No question. We lose about 100 hairs every day. The number of hairs on my head is not an approximation, it is a definite. Add several billion people. God, necessarily is omnipresent.
Assuming for the sake of argument that God is keeping track of the precise number of hairs on each and every person's head, which He isn't actually doing, but even assuming that He is, it would not prove that God is omnipresent in the classical sense of that term.

First of all, God wouldn't have to be present to know such a meaningless point of trivia. Even if He actually knows this, it's not like He has to sit there and physically count each hair.

But let's grant that premise as well and say, for the sake of argument, that God couldn't know such a thing from afar. It still wouldn't prove that God is omnipresent in the classical sense of the term. It would merely prove that God is everywhere He chooses to be, which is as close to "omnipresent" as the scripture supports.

Now Genesis 3: There is no way, knowing the number of hairs on Adam's head, He didn't know exactly where Adam was. It isn't possible.
Of course it's possible!

Let's say you make a broom and that during the process of making this broom you make a very specific point of making sure that there are precisely 2376 bristles in the head of the broom. You know EXACTLY how many "hairs" are on the head of the broom you made and it was very good! Then your son comes around and has a mess to clean up and take the broom and uses it. He doesn't damage the broom at all but gets distracted and doesn't put it away where it belongs. The next day, you come to use the broom and can't find it. You don't know where it is and yet if someone were to ask you, you could still tell them just exactly how many bristles it has.

Obviously a less than perfect analogy but the point it makes is that ignorance of one thing does not imply ignorance of another thing. God is perfectly able to give someone privacy if He chooses to do so.

This and other instances in scripture in which it 'appears' that Open Theists do not think through their speculations well, have always had me eschewing the plausibility of Open Theism altogether.
The error you've made is in thinking that because it doesn't "appear" to you that we've thought things through that we therefore definitely have not done so.

The fact is that we have done so!

I'm encouraged, however, by your new found affinity for presenting actual arguments! Keep it up! What you'll find is that not only have we thought it through but that it is in fact you who have not done so.

Why, for example, would a failure to think through the implications of something as trivial and mundane as counting the hairs on someone's head cause you to "eschewing the plausibility of Open Theism", but the implications that Classical doctrines have in regards to God's righteousness and justice not have a similar effect on your thinking?

It just does not, add up. It leaves all kinds of oddity logic failures in its wake.
On the contrary. It is precisely logic that leads to the doctrines. The only thing it isn't logically consistent with is the doctrines which you read into the bible!

The best sense of Genesis 3 and Luke 12:7 is that God must be omnipresent.
God is definitely NOT omnipresent in the classical sense of the term. Your own thinking based on your own premises do not prove that God is omnipresent except in the sense that He can be everywhere He desires to be at once.

There is no way, other than omnipresence, that God can know the number of hairs on 8 billion people's heads, without being omnipresent. Nothing else makes any kind of logical sense. And this all from scriptures mind you, no Greek other than the scripture itself.
Well, I've just demonstrated otherwise.

The best sense of grasping no sparrow falling to the ground among 1 billion without God knowing it is a sense of immanence and omnipresence. Only omnipresence, or something incredibly near can make sense of knowing how many hairs you have on your and I have on my head this second. It'd be weird to think He hops from on to another among billions and counts every second, lest you lose one in the next moment. This then, intimates, from scripture, that God is omniscient on the scope of His omnipresence (why if one omni, logically all omnis, they all tie together this way). So not only scripturally (God who is 'greater' than our hearts knows (greater) all things 1 John 3:20.
OH! Don't think I didn't notice your "something incredibly near" concession there! That concession blows up your entire thesis here, Lon!

What you present here is the same argument as before and it has the same refutation. The bible definitely does support from multiple directions that God is everywhere He wants to be. It DOES NOT teach, however, that God is required to be everywhere at all times nor would any Christian affirm that God can be forced to do something He doesn't want to do. Why they are then willing to accept that God MUST be somewhere He doesn't want to be is difficult to understand.

As I've said many times, all of the omni-doctrines over state the truth.

Propositional scenario: Okay. You are an Open Theist reading me these two posits for the first time. What do you do with them? Dismiss them outright because they don't agree with your paradigms? Analyze and try to find the holes? Let it question your assumptions?

I've tried to walk many miles to date in Open shoes. To date, they simply do not add up in any cogent way. To date looking at Open Theism, I still cannot know 'now' that God, limited to actions, only 'now' knows Abraham's heart. It causes me, a good logical mind, to question English translation. "Now" simply cannot be the best translation of Attah when BDB gives plenty of other options that are legitimate uses of the Hebrew term. Only explanation? No, but genuinely a good one. It simply makes the best sense, even if I were Open Theist because the translation is what and only causes this problem.
Well, the only thing I can say in response to this near gibberish is that the only thing that the plain reading of scripture is logically inconsistent with is the doctrines which you desire to impose on God and insist on reading into the bible. You, quite frankly, are not that good of a logical mind. You seem incapable of discerning what your own premises are and are completely blind to your driving need to read your doctrine into the text, even to the point of trying to justify rationalizing by equating it with the use of sound reason as though attempting to justify a belief after it has already been made (rationalizing) is the equivalent to carefully, honestly and objectively evaluating an idea before reaching a conclusion (sound reason).
 
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Lon

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God knows what is in our hearts.
We can know whether or not someone is trying to kill us without waiting for them to actually kill us. Does that make us omniscient?
"Now?" In the story, God waited until the knife. Realize in the story, Abraham is greatly conflicted, not a killer. When I was a child, age 8 I wanted to commit suicide (thank God He saved me). I held the knife to my stomach and started to push. It hurt. I stopped and cried out to God to save me. The previous summer I'd heard my Sunday School teacher leading a child to Christ. It was right before church: "I need to be saved." "Next week." "NO! NOW. I need Jesus now!" (I did). There is no magic to asking Jesus to save us, but I knew my need and knew intuitively 'today is the day of your salvation' and 'today, if you hear His voice.' At 8 life was nearly a living hell. I was beat everyday badly by my brother. I love him today, but he'd broken my nose 4 times while mom, a single mother worked. My report cards all said I was smart but daydreamed all the time. Teachers didn't know how to recognize trauma back then. I say this first to say I recognize me in the story and second that plunging a knife is a whole other thing, by experience. The best sense of the text is either 1) that attah has broader meaning and 'now' causes English concepts to steer near Open Theism and 2) that it still couldn't be rightly said that God knew unless He knows more than we. If, as I believe, He sustains the universe by Himself (Colossians 1:16-20), then every synapse that actually holds my information is there for Him clearly to see. If He knows the number of hairs, He knows every synaptic connection in my brain. We know this story isn't about God learning something, it is about something Abraham needed to work through. There was already a ram in the thickets. It makes the best sense of the text.
Right! And the reason why nobody thinks that is because there is nothing illogical about believing God can be at more than one place at a time without Him having to be everywhere at the same time.
Then He cannot know the number of hairs on your particular head. According to the idea, He ain't there until you pray. Do you pray silently? I do. Do you find it at all capturing that God has heard every one of my prayers and answered them? If I held Open Views, that wouldn't be possible. God, by their logic, cannot hear them if not spoken out loud. Open Theism never has made sense to me. I believe Open Theists hold their views inconsistently. Thankfully they 'live' and act with God like they aren't really Open Theists. I love that. It makes you my brother in Christ if a tiny bit off in what you believe. I'm okay with that, just want to show why I cannot follow down that same road. These aren't hurdles, they are road blocks to go no further. -Lon
God can know the hairs on our head without being in a whirlwind or a fire or an earthquake.
 

Lon

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"Rationalizing" is to understand shallowly or wrongly, by definition.

You don't get to redefine words that have bad connotations to them just because they apply to what you want to do.
Of course, yet we all do it. All of us. We are trying to take our ideas make them work. The only difference between rational and rationalizing is what we choose to ignore. Until then, we all rationalize because we have working paradigms. When those are sufficiently challenged, we rework our beliefs and allow them to follow. I simply used your word and embraced it. I rationalize and then reason.
You seem to do it all the time! The implications do not trump the direct meaning of the text, Lon! The implications can be anything you want to imply!
Indictment is a rabbit trail.
Saying it doesn't make it so. Reality is not about "to me" or anything similar to that. Reality is what it is. It is objective and your personal opinions don't have anything to do with it.
Yeah they do. You aren't without it. If we see it in ourselves, that is a good thing. I rationalize. You rationalize. We entrench. Is it bad if we all do it? Depends if we see it in ourselves and know the remedy. I've been here 25 years on TOL. I think I've got a handle on it. I truly look to anything new to challenge. I rationalize less.
NO OPEN THEIST ANYWHERE OR AT ANY TIME HAS EVER SAID OR EVEN SUGGESTED THAT GOD CANNOT READ MINDS!!!!
My point was that ONCE Abraham made his intents KNOWN... God knew it. Even before Abraham had to act.

It's so simple that a child can understand it.
God "knows our hearts" once we give Him that information....
As Abraham did. But NOT before!

That is the most ridiculous claim I've seen you make this week. Well, it's Sunday today! It's the most ridiculous claim I've seen you make is several days, perhaps a month.
"Seems" like rationalizing to me. It doesn't jive with your theology of course.
Nonsense. We know for a fact how God came to know. The incident is recorded for us in God's word. Why is it that you cannot believe the words on the page, Lon?
I'm not a slave to English translations. Reactionary on your part? Of course. I have no problem questioning translations. My professors were the very men that translated one of the most used English bibles on the planet. They taught me to not trust. Why? Because the ones who hired them also employed English teachers who reworked the texts. Granted they were resubmitted back to the Hebrew Greek scholars (at times).
This is just stupidity.
Not helpful, even to/for you. It certainly means nothing to me.
Yeah, God could have raised Isaac from the dead but then He would have been the God that ordered actual human sacrifice and for Abraham to actually murder his "only" son. Talk about not thinking through the implications! I mean come on, Lon! As it is, God finds out that Abraham was willing to make the same decision that He made before the foundation of the world and He got to have just a beautifully awesome parallel story to put into the pages of the bible as both prophesy and proof of what we now call the gospel. The way God directed that scene was brilliant to the point of perfection!
You are defending 'my' position on point. I'm trying to see it 'from' and Open perspective, remember? I'm the one who sees a ram already trapped in the bushes. It truly renders 'now' as translation error as one and likely the culprit.
It makes absolutely perfect sense! Deciding that you're going to obey is great, actually doing it is greater. God waited until Abraham was in the act before stopping him. As I said, PERFECT!
It is good you see this passage isn't about God, as much as Abraham. "Now I know" would be taken not as literal, but rather that the devotion act had to be carried through. There was already a ram in the thicket. So did God know? Of course. "Now?" If God can read minds (and He can), then acts are simply follow-through for what is there. Abraham was conflicted but following through with every action and intent.
Except that they totally did use the correct term, which I have already established.
It makes problematic sense and "now" English.
Except that this isn't what the text says! It actually does say, "NOW I know". That isn't an opinion. That isn't wishful thinking. That isn't rationalization. It is a pure fact!
Read Hebrew? No it does not.
There is no such thing as a right way to rationalize.
Seeing it in ourselves is a good step in the right direction. I posit we all do it. The first step in change is to see the need.
Assuming for the sake of argument that God is keeping track of the precise number of hairs on each and every person's head, which He isn't actually doing, but even assuming that He is, it would not prove that God is omnipresent in the classical sense of that term.
o_O Luke 12:7 But even the very hairs of your head are all numbered. Fear not therefore: ye are of more value than many sparrows.
First of all, God wouldn't have to be present to know such a meaningless point of trivia. Even if He actually knows this, it's not like He has to sit there and physically count each hair.
Agree! My scripturally driven belief: Colossians 1:16-20 Acts 17:28 It is because He actively sustains them.
But let's grant that premise as well and say, for the sake of argument, that God couldn't know such a thing from afar. It still wouldn't prove that God is omnipresent in the classical sense of the term. It would merely prove that God is everywhere He chooses to be, which is as close to "omnipresent" as the scripture supports.
Remember there are 8 billion people in the world. As you say, that is in all practicality an omnipresent definition but if He currently sustains everything, all created for Him, the connections would be omnipresent as necessity (or as you say, very nearly).
Of course it's possible!

Let's say you make a broom and that during the process of making this broom you make a very specific point of making sure that there are precisely 2376 bristles in the head of the broom. You know EXACTLY how many "hairs" are on the head of the broom you made and it was very good! Then your son comes around and has a mess to clean up and take the broom and uses it. He doesn't damage the broom at all but gets distracted and doesn't put it away where it belongs. The next day, you come to use the broom and can't find it. You don't know where it is and yet if someone were to ask you, you could still tell them just exactly how many bristles it has.
Okay, but this analogy does not account that you and I lose approximately 100 - 200 hairs every day so analogy cannot accurately dismiss.
Obviously a less than perfect analogy but the point it makes is that ignorance of one thing does not imply ignorance of another thing. God is perfectly able to give someone privacy if He chooses to do so.
It does when it is fact the number is not the same one moment to the next. I'd imagine most go in the drain after a shower, another few when we rub our heads and another few when a good wind hits us.
The error you've made is in thinking that because it doesn't "appear" to you that we've thought things through that we therefore definitely have not done so.
Is it an error? It appears that way, even with the broom analogy.
The fact is that we have done so!

I'm encouraged, however, by your new found affinity for presenting actual arguments! Keep it up! What you'll find is that not only have we thought it through but that it is in fact you who have not done so.
🆙 I look forward to that day.
Why, for example, would a failure to think through the implications of something as trivial and mundane as counting the hairs on someone's head cause you to "eschewing the plausibility of Open Theism", but the implications that Classical doctrines have in regards to God's righteousness and justice not have a similar effect on your thinking?
Those tend to be emotional concerns. Emotions are good like dashlights on a car, but I quickly move beyond them to try to make sense of what God does and 'why.' For me, the wheat/tares analogy is very near akin to answering all problematics: "Don't touch them lest even one of my wheat is harmed!" Such allows either Open Theism or the rest of us to peer into the heart of God and see His concerns.
On the contrary. It is precisely logic that leads to the doctrines. The only thing it isn't logically consistent with is the doctrines which you read into the bible!
Yep.
God is definitely NOT omnipresent in the classical sense of the term. Your own thinking based on your own premises do not prove that God is omnipresent except in the sense that He can be everywhere He desires to be at once.
On this, I am duly challenged. I appreciate that I do not take terms to Greeks nor even often enough further than etymology. Panentheism is certainly problematic. I have no problem with you expounding the further meaning. Panentheism, in a dictionary is nowhere near as problematic as in philosophy and religious connotations. This is probably the largest issue of frustration between us, but I want to say again 1) thank you for correction when such applies and 2) the need for Godly longsuffering, patience, and grace. I appreciate you putting up with me and the frustration thereof.
Well, I've just demonstrated otherwise.


OH! Don't think I didn't notice your "something incredibly near" concession there! That concession blows up your entire thesis here, Lon!
Not if we agree. It means (as with just above), much of our disagreement is just over what to call something. We are apart, true enough. How far apart seems less every day I talk to you. We will continue to argue over definition on point.
What you present here is the same argument as before and it has the same refutation. The bible definitely does support from multiple directions that God is everywhere He wants to be. It DOES NOT teach, however, that God is required to be everywhere at all times nor would any Christian affirm that God can be forced to do something He doesn't want to do. Why they are then willing to accept that God MUST be somewhere He doesn't want to be is difficult to understand.

As I've said many times, all of the omni-doctrines over state the truth.
Remember this, however, for future consideration: I believe scripture says the universe is sustained by Him. There would be, in my understanding, no need to count, ever. It has a definite omnipresent sense.
Well, the only thing I can say in response to this near gibberish is that the only thing that the plain reading of scripture is logically inconsistent with is the doctrines which you desire to impose on God and insist on reading into the bible.
"Gibberish." Yet you followed it all. Further, in order for you to state that you've thought of these things, you'd have to concede you also have entertain 'gibberish' in your own mind else you haven't entertained the arguments. That my friend, would be rationalization. Best to hold off value statements most often. I rarely tell somebody their ideas or gibberish. Your broom analogy is problematic as it doesn't coincide with hairs. Gibberish would be unkind and untrue. It was a good thought. Aren't you better for me simply telling you where it doesn't cross-over than to tell you it was stupid (it was not, just not thought through far enough).
You, quite frankly, are not that good of a logical mind.
LOL! I didn't come up with the broom analogy.
You seem incapable of discerning what your own premises are and are completely blind to your driving need to read your doctrine into the text, even to the point of trying to justify rationalizing by equating it with the use of sound reason as though attempting to justify a belief after it has already been made (rationalizing) is the equivalent to carefully, honestly and objectively evaluating an idea before reaching a conclusion (sound reason).
"Gibberish" is rationalizing, doing this very thing. None of us are completely logical. We aim for it and seek scriptures to be more logical. This very thread is exactly that else none of us would be here. We test our ideas and see if they stand and when we find ideas from scripture that truly work, we share them that we might return the favor to another. We are seeking to understand God and Let him who is taught the word share in all good things with him who teaches. It intimates taking care of one's instructor, but it also has context for sharing what we learn.

You've heard 'three fingers pointing back.' In psychology, it is a truism of observation that when name-calls in frustration, they are revealing the limits of their patience, not able to address the issue, etc. In teaching, we are instructed to draw out the student when they make an unclear statement to 1) help them learn to explain themselves and 2) to practice patience and foster a teachable moment. You have a good mind Clete, but you often portray yourself the quintessential logician over and against any contenders. I wasn't born with a silverspoon. I have to work for all things academic. I've done well, but had poor grades as I had to work 5 hours every day to make ends meet in college. Then there was this girl. By my senior year, I'd saved enough to not have to work and graduated at least that year with a 4.0. In Master's college I earned a 3.87. Why all this? I want you to know me when we interact. It may allow for less frustration if you know more where I come from. I'm not exactly an academic. I have to work harder than the rest of you. That must necessarily require patience and longsuffering. I'm sorry, but thank you just the same. In Him -Lon
 

JudgeRightly

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God, by their logic, cannot hear them if not spoken out loud.

This is simply false.

As Clete said above, NO OPEN THEIST BELIEVES THAT GOD CANNOT READ PEOPLE'S MINDS!

QUITE THE OPPOSITE!

We believe that God knows people's thoughts before they put them into words, as the Bible says.

You believe God knows people's thoughts before they think them. But that isn't supported by any scripture.
 

Lon

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This is simply false.
Again, by the logic. False is fine, please correct and help reconcile a problematic implication, even for your thoughts if followed through. "'Now' I know"? Surely you must have wrestled with the same?
As Clete said above, NO OPEN THEIST BELIEVES THAT GOD CANNOT READ PEOPLE'S MINDS!

QUITE THE OPPOSITE!

We believe that God knows people's thoughts before they put them into words, as the Bible says.

You believe God knows people's thoughts before they think them. But that isn't supported by any scripture.
Okay, bring it back to the text then: "Now(?) I know"???
No, it doesn't jive with YOUR, theology Lon. It "jives" just fine with ours.
Explain please. Please don't lose patience else it is just a you and me show. I want to know God and the power of His word. Philippians 3:10

You know it jives with mine: "Now" is English. Attah is Hebrew. That jives if I'm right. Yes?
 
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JudgeRightly

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I'm the one who sees a ram already trapped in the bushes.

So what?

God had three days until Abraham and Isaac arrived on the mountain. You really think it was that hard for Him to prepare the ram beforehand?

Not to mention, even on the Open view, God was banking on Abraham being willing to give up his only son, and planning on stopping him. Are you saying that God can't plan that far ahead without having to know exactly what will happen? Or that He has to be somehow in meticulous divine control over everything that will happen?

We believe God can plan ahead, and predicting outcomes is easy for God who knows men's hearts!

But whether someone is willing to actually sacrifice their only son, that requires the one doing the sacrificing to actually be put in that situation.

Abraham himself probably didn't know whether he would raise his hand against his son or not. Thus, God wanted to test him.

So God sent Abraham and his only son to Mount Moriah, where, likely in the exact same spot, 2000 years later God would send His own Son to die on the cross, so that He could know that Abraham was a man after God's own heart.

The whole thing just screams "OPEN THEISM" from start to finish!
 
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