nikolai_42
Well-known member
Oh, I see. Sorry about the "fried brain" comment.
Isaiah is asking "Who can dwell in everlasting burning?" The obvious answer is "Nobody can". This kind of question is often asked in the Bible, a question which directly implies the answer "No". This absolutely does not prove that the wicked will not be destroyed but will live forever being tortured by flames in hell.
And you STILL didn't explain why being destroyed is not a matter of terror. ANYONE who is about to be destroyed would live in terror of the destruction. Saying that the "terror of the Lord" means that nobody would ever be destroyed simply does not make any logical sense at all. Why should I believe that God tortures people forever in hell when there hasn't been a single logical or biblical argument given that God actually does torture people?
What was Lazarus experiencing when he asked for a drop of water to soothe his tongue (Luke 16:24)? Regardless of whether this is just a parable or it actually happened, Jesus included that detail in His message. It's not being interpolated - it is actually in the message. This man is not extinguished, he is suffering on an ongoing basis. If he were no more, there would be no need of relief.
And doesn't this passage seem to be a fairly strong parallel to that in Isaiah 33 :
The same shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out without mixture into the cup of his indignation; and he shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb:
And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever: and they have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receiveth the mark of his name.
Revelation 14:10-11
How is "have no rest day or night" consistent with "non-existent"?
EDIT : I could accept that there is an end to this torment only because Jesus distinguishes those who DO know His will and don't do it from those who DON'T and don't do it. Both are beaten, but not with the same severity. Is that length of time or degree of punishment? I can't say. But it is clear that there is significant duration (if that makes sense in eternity) accompanying this punishment - regardless of who is undergoing it. The problem with that eschatology, then, is what happens to them at the other end of that punishment? While scripture does not clearly, definitively and without ambiguity say, the "for ever and ever" certainly seems to imply never ending punishment. I am curious about Hebrews 6:8 -- if the "to be burned" is continuous or implies an end (i.e. burned once with an end or burned continually). So while there seems to be hints of annihilationism, there seem to be pretty significant problems for it as well. I don't like the doctrine of eternal punishment, but I have to admit that I see it in scripture.