Idolater
"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
"The Son of God" means God.
I'm not, but John 5:18 KJV.That's utterly preposterous. You are not your dad.
It's biblical. The Son of God IS God.
"The Son of God" means God.
I'm not, but John 5:18 KJV.That's utterly preposterous. You are not your dad.
John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know Thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom Thou hast sent.
Yep, and when his God had resurrected him back to life, that same body (now flesh and bone... not flesh and blood) stood up. You just keep ignoring the Scriptures, because they get in the way of your pet theories;
Gal 1:1-3 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead
2 And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia:
3 Grace be to you and peace from God the Father, and from our Lord Jesus Christ,
Are you intentionally ignoring the Jews that accepted Jesus, which NEVER called him "God"... but called him the "son of the living God"?Just to interrupt your monologue for a moment, but I need to point out that when you say that "the Jews were the only ones who stated that Jesus made himself equal to God...." that "the Jews" are the pretty much entire audience of the gospel.
We need to remember all of the rules for context; who is speaking, who is being spoken to, what is the topic, etc.Rosenritter said:Explain for us why Jesus spoke in proverb and parable while he was on the earth again?
LOL .... going by YOUR interpretive method, Satan was correct in Gen 3, when he said "you will not surely die". You NEED to pay more attention to WHO you are quoting! You have accepted the excuses made by murderers as Gospel!! IN SPITE of Jesus own words;I'm not, but John 5:18 KJV.
It's biblical. The Son of God IS God.
Jesus was praying to his God, his Father ...... he was NOT praying to himself!! Your convoluted distortions of this text are hideous.Regarding your centerpiece, John 17.3, if you were even remotely familiar with Greek, then you would already be cognizant that there are absolutely no grammatical reasons at all for denying that αληθινον θεον refers to Jesus Christ.
This can be deduced from a study of the article with multiple substantives connected via kai.
αυτη δε εστιν η αιωνιος ζωη ινα γινωσκωσιν σε τον μονον αληθινον θεον και ον απεστειλας ιησουν χριστον
hautē de estin hē aiōnios zōē hina ginōskōsin se ton monon alēthinon theon kai hon apesteilas Iēsoun christon
And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent. (John 17.3)
Indeed.
Yes.Who raised Jesus from the dead?
• God the Father… Acts 3.26; Eph 1.15-20; Gal 1.1; 1 Thes 1.9-10
No. None of these texts state Jesus resurrected himself. John 2 states that even if his body is placed in the tomb, he is going to stand up again. This is a sign. AFTER his God resurrected him from the dead!Apple7 said:• God the Son…John 2.19-22; 10.17-18; Romans 6.4;
NO. There is NEVER a Scripture that uses this PAGAN phrase "God the spirit". It is apostasy.Apple7 said:• God the Spirit…Romans 8.11; 1 Peter 3.18
There is no such thing in the Scriptures. You are ignoring what the texts actually state, and replacing "God" with your False God.Apple7 said:• The Trinity…
I'm in GREAT company;Indeed.
You already agreed that Jesus is referred to as Theos in other portions of scripture.
How many 'other' portions of scripture have Satan identified as Theos?
Zero.
Thus...your argument is one from silence, and not from fact.
Revelation was not written linearly.
Any serious student of scripture can easily see that Revelation repeats itself endlessly, with varying epithets.
Show us...
He's not.
Remember, Rev was not written linearly.
The fact that Satan is bound in Rev 12, is proven-out in Rev 13 which describes the fact that Satan is not there in person.
Heb 2.14
επει ουν τα παιδια κεκοινωνηκεν αιματος και σαρκος και αυτος παραπλησιως μετεσχεν των αυτων ινα δια του θανατου καταργηση τον το κρατος εχοντα του θανατου τουτ εστιν τον διαβολον
epei oun ta paidia kekoinōnēken haimatos kai sarkos kai autos paraplēsiōs meteschen tōn autōn hina dia tou thanatou katargēsē ton to kratos echonta tou thanatou tout' estin ton diabolon
Since, then, the children have partaken of flesh and blood, in like manner He Himself also shared the same things, that through death He might render entirely idle the one having the power of death, that is, the devil;
καταργηση = ‘katargēsē’
‘katargēsē’ definition:
Strong’s #G2673. Aorist tense verb, 3rd person singular.The Devil is to be reduced to inactivity through the death of Christ (Heb 2.14). The Epistle to the Hebrews fills out this declaration by stating that through the death of Christ even the one who has power over death, the devil, is condemned to inactivity or ineffectiveness in relation to the Christian (Heb 2.14). To cause something to come to an end or no longer in existence, abolish, wipe out, set aside. To render idle, unemployed, inactivate, inoperative. To cause a person or thing to have no further efficiency. To deprive of force, influence, power. To cause to cease, put an end to, do away with, annul, abolish. To cease, to pass away, be done away. To be severed from, separated from, discharged from, loosed from any one. To terminate all intercourse with one. to be (render) entirely idle (useless), literally or figuratively: - abolish, cease, cumber, deliver, destroy, do away, become (make) of no (none, without) effect, fail, loose, bring (come) to nought, put away (down), vanish away, make void. To cause something to be unproductive, use up, exhaust, waste. To cause something to lose its power or effectiveness, invalidate, make powerless. From #G2596 & #G691.
Strong’s #G2596. Down from.
Strong’s #G691. To be idle.
Perhaps this passage is a little clearer for your viewing...
2 Thes 2.6 - 7
και νυν το κατεχον οιδατε εις το αποκαλυφθηναι αυτον εν τω αυτου καιρω το γαρ μυστηριον ηδη ενεργειται της ανομιας μονον ο κατεχων αρτι εως εκ μεσου γενηται
kai nyn to katechon iodate eis to apokalyphthēnai auton en tō heautou kairō to gar mystērion ēdē energeitai tēs anomias monon ho katechōn arti heōs ek mesou genētai
And you know that which is binding him for now, to be revealed in his appointed time. For The Hidden, The Lawless is already working, only he is bound at present, taken out of the way, until he comes out of the midst.
Rev 12 shares the same Greek term applied to Satan, 'apēlthen', as that of Jesus' parable in Mat 13.24 - 30, in which Satan goes away in the absolute sense (i.e. he is bound).
Jesus was praying to his God, his Father ...... he was NOT praying to himself!! Your convoluted distortions of this text are hideous.
There is no such thing in the Scriptures. You are ignoring what the texts actually state, and replacing "God" with your False God.
Romans 10.9; 1 Peter 1.20-21; Hebrews 13.20-21; 1 Cor 6.14; Col 2.11-12; Acts 2.23-24; 2.32; 3.14-15; 13.30-37
Every one of these texts states it is "God" that raised Jesus from the dead.
Again, are you suggesting absence of evidence is evidence of absence?
Not according to any verse in the Scriptures. The God of the holy Bible is Jehovah/YHVH, and there is ONLY one Jehovah/YHVH;The God of the Holy Bible is Triune.
Your "oneness" accomplices would disagree.Who, but you, ever claimed that Jesus was praying to Himself?
This statement of yours is only uttered by those who have no earthly idea of what The Trinity even is...and then you proceed to attack a straw-man trinity of your very own creation.
The First and Second Person's of The Trinity are not each other.
Nope. It's a "moving target" by design. It's an utterly illogical theory, inconsistent with God's Creation,and more importantly it is inconsistent with the clear and simple statements of Scripture. This "trinity" is the illegitimate offspring of Greek philosophy, mixed with a hand full of verses that are merely worded so that the trinitarian doctrine is a POSSIBLE interpretation of what is actually written.Apple7 said:Little wonder you reject it.
Tell us, in your own words, what you even think The Trinity is.