Jesus said... "Beware of Men"

fishrovmen

Active member

Actually, many here recognize this; and though many of us try to reason not only from the Scriptures with him, but even with common sense, logic and non-contradiction.
Roberts problem begins not with knowledge and understanding of the Bible, but rather knowledge and understanding of the english language. If he can't understand how two opposites can NOT both be true, it is no wonder that he can't understand the revealed spiritual truth.
Until he learns earthly truths, it is a waste of time to discuss the spiritual. But it is not as though many of us have not spent years trying with him only to find his self exalting proclamations of superior knowledge.
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
Actually, many here recognize this; and though many of us try to reason not only from the Scriptures with him, but even with common sense, logic and non-contradiction.
Roberts problem begins not with knowledge and understanding of the Bible, but rather knowledge and understanding of the english language. If he can't understand how two opposites can NOT both be true, it is no wonder that he can't understand the revealed spiritual truth.
Until he learns earthly truths, it is a waste of time to discuss the spiritual. But it is not as though many of us have not spent years trying with him only to find his self exalting proclamations of superior knowledge.


Everything is right in the Bible, but you apparently don't read the Bible. You would rather believe the words of a heretic. The Bible does not support Calvinism, it supports the Gospel and justification by faith, which is a million miles away from Calvinism.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
The scripture plainly says that the law has been abolished, Ephesians 2:15. Just because you don't believe it doesn't mean that it is not true.

The Book of the Law was temporary but the covenant written with the finger of God is eternal.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Not unless the disciples are ALSO God!

What is man that You are mindful of him and the son of man that You visit him? For You have made him a little lower than the angels and You have crowned him with glory and honor. You have made him to have dominion over the works of Your hands, you have put all things under his feet. (Psalm 8:4-6)

But now we do not yet see all things put under him. (Hebrews 2:8)​

We are joint heirs with Jesus of all that exists. (But not yet)
 

Grosnick Marowbe

New member
Hall of Fame
At the center of every cult or religion is a man.

In the Calvinist religion it is John Calvin. In the Catholic religion it is the pope. All cults and religions have this one thing in Common. The cultist, Jim Jones, led over 1000 to their deaths. Look at all of the TV preachers that have fallen into sin and corruption. There are literally thousands of preachers that have come out of the seminaries that have no idea of what the Gospel is. This is why Jesus said, "Beware of Men".

The Bible will not lead you astray, but men will. My rule is that if it is not in the Bible and it is not according to the Gospel of Jesus Christ and justification by faith, then reject it. Since the Bible is about Jesus Christ and his Gospel, everything should be interpreted in the light of this Gospel. If it is not according to the Gospel that is the tip off that it is false doctrine.

In the Gospel Jesus full fills God's holy law and then abolishes it, Colossians 2:14, but only for Christians. Christians are not under the law, nor are they subject to it. Unbelieving sinners are still under it and will be judged by it. 1 Timothy 1:9, 10. In the Gospel Jesus atones for our sins and the sins of the whole world, 1 John 2:2, and in doing so reconciles us and the world unto God, 2 Corinthians 5:18, 19. These are simple basic Christian beliefs that are proven by scripture. If anyone teaches otherwise his teachings should be rejected.

AMEN!
 

Ask Mr. Religion

☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) &#9
Gold Subscriber
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
The scripture plainly says that the law has been abolished, Ephesians 2:15. Just because you don't believe it doesn't mean that it is not true.
No, Robert, you have again not grasped the context of the many Scriptures you quote in vain attempts to support your own notions. You never appear to take the entire context of what you are quoting into consideration.

Paul says that Christ himself became our peace by breaking down the barrier formed by the dividing wall between the Jew and the Gentile (Eph. 2:14). As an example of that barrier, consider the partition that separated the Court of the Gentiles from the rest of the temple, having inscriptions in Latin and Greek on it that warned Gentiles not to enter upon pain of death. That barrier cannot be the moral law given the context of enmity between Jew and Gentile.

Our Lord brings peace By abolishing in his flesh [i.e., in his incarnate being] the law with its commandments and regulations (Eph. 2:15). The commandments referred to here (with regulations) are not the moral law—the Ten Commandments—but the rites of ceremony and sacrifice that made the Jews come near to the temple (circumcision, sacrifices, washings, and abstaining from certain kinds of food). The barrier of ceremonial law that kept the Jew and Gentile apart and was the basis of their hostility has been demolished by the sacrifice of Christ’s flesh that makes all distinctions of the flesh now irrelevant for religious privilege.

AMR
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
No, Robert, you have again not grasped the context of the many Scriptures you quote in vain attempts to support your own notions. You never appear to take the entire context of what you are quoting into consideration.

Paul says that Christ himself became our peace by breaking down the barrier formed by the dividing wall between the Jew and the Gentile (Eph. 2:14). As an example of that barrier, consider the partition that separated the Court of the Gentiles from the rest of the temple, having inscriptions in Latin and Greek on it that warned Gentiles not to enter upon pain of death. That barrier cannot be the moral law given the context of enmity between Jew and Gentile.

Our Lord brings peace By abolishing in his flesh [i.e., in his incarnate being] the law with its commandments and regulations (Eph. 2:15). The commandments referred to here (with regulations) are not the moral law—the Ten Commandments—but the rites of ceremony and sacrifice that made the Jews come near to the temple (circumcision, sacrifices, washings, and abstaining from certain kinds of food). The barrier of ceremonial law that kept the Jew and Gentile apart and was the basis of their hostility has been demolished by the sacrifice of Christ’s flesh that makes all distinctions of the flesh now irrelevant for religious privilege.

AMR


For the Christian there is no law. Where there is law there is judgment.

The law demands that you do something. There is NOTHING for us to do other than to live by faith. "THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH" Romans 1:17.

We live by faith in the work and the person of Jesus Christ, (The Gospel)
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
For the Christian there is no law. Where there is law there is judgment.

The law demands that you do something. There is NOTHING for us to do other than to live by faith. "THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH" Romans 1:17.

We live by faith in the work and the person of Jesus Christ, (The Gospel)

You keep moving the bar, Pate, and changing your "argument." I cannot speak for AMR, but know this. AMR says:

"Our Lord brings peace By abolishing in his flesh [i.e., in his incarnate being] the law with its commandments and regulations (Eph. 2:15). The commandments referred to here (with regulations) are not the moral law—the Ten Commandments—but the rites of ceremony and sacrifice that made the Jews come near to the temple (circumcision, sacrifices, washings, and abstaining from certain kinds of food). "-AMR


You say that the moral law was abolished, and you are not just arguing that "For the Christian there is no law"-here are your words:

"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil."-Pate
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
You keep moving the bar, Pate, and changing your "argument." I cannot speak for AMR, but know this. AMR says:

"Our Lord brings peace By abolishing in his flesh [i.e., in his incarnate being] the law with its commandments and regulations (Eph. 2:15). The commandments referred to here (with regulations) are not the moral law—the Ten Commandments—but the rites of ceremony and sacrifice that made the Jews come near to the temple (circumcision, sacrifices, washings, and abstaining from certain kinds of food). "-AMR


You say that the moral law was abolished, and you are not just arguing that "For the Christian there is no law"-here are your words:

"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil."-Pate

If you want to live under the law prepare yourself to be judged by the law.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
If you want to live under the law prepare yourself to be judged by the law.

Irrelevant, and I did not say that Pate, so knock it off. I've never said that the Christian is under the law, in the context of his walk, nor have I ever argued that he/she is under the jurisdiction of the law. However, have also never argued, as you do, below, that the law was abolished....



"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil....In the Gospel Jesus full fills God's holy law and then abolishes it, "-Pate


...for, if it was:

-everyone is saved
-the lost no longer, like Paul, the Galatians.....who were led to Christ, by the law, are no longer
-no longer are the lost given the knowledge of what sin is, through the law
-Murder, covetousness, theft.....................................are OK by you, as their is no law to condemn them

No Christian argues, as you do, the above, and that we should delete these scriptures, as they no longer apply, as you do:



1 Timothy 1:9 KJV

knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,


Galatians 3:24-25 KJV

Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.


Romans 3:20 KJV

Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Romans 7:7 KJV
What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.


Satanic.


You assert, on record, that the law no longer leads others to Christ, as the school master, since it no longer exists, and that others cannot know what sin is, since the law no longer exists.


The Ten Commandments, part of the law of Moses, which you say is abolished, are for the specific purpose of defining sin. This law, which defines sin, is described by Paul as being as "holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good"(Romans 7:12 KJV).


You say the law is abolished, and thus assert that everyone is saved, demon, as if there is no law, there is no transgression, and sin is not imputed, where there is no law.

You are on record-that is your satanic opinion, while I gave you chapter, and verse, in which to soak that "puffed up as a bullfrog in heat" head of yours. Of course, you are always right, aren't you, Pate?

One more time:

If the law was blotted out/did away, everyone would be saved:

1 John 3:4 KJV Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.


So, one of the definitions of sin is " the transgression of the law."

With me?


Now:

Romans 4:15 KJV because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.


Romans 5:13 KJV (for until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Thus, since sin is the transgression of the law, and, if it is true that there is no more "God's holy law," then, where there is no law, there is no transgression, whereby anyone can be accused, and sin cannot be imputed, if there is no law. Secular wise, for eg., if there is no law against speeding/going over a certain speed, no one can be charged with speeding/breaking a law-there is no law against speeding-no transgression.


You need to shuck this "the law was abolished/did away" assertion, and certainly not employ Colossians 2:14 KJV, or the Ephesians passage,in making your "argument," as "the handwriting of ordinances"/"the law of commandments" is not a reference to "God's holy law," the law of Moses, the 10 commandments.


Pate: Murder anyone!!! Steal!! Covet!!!!! The law was abolished, and no one can be condemned-there is no law!!!!!
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
Irrelevant, and I did not say that Pate, so knock it off. I've never said that the Christian is under the law, in the context of his walk, nor have I ever argued that he/she is under the jurisdiction of the law. However, have also never argued, as you do, below, that the law was abolished....



"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil....In the Gospel Jesus full fills God's holy law and then abolishes it, "-Pate


...for, if it was:

-everyone is saved
-the lost no longer, like Paul, the Galatians.....who were led to Christ, by the law, are no longer
-no longer are the lost given the knowledge of what sin is, through the law
-Murder, covetousness, theft.....................................are OK by you, as their is no law to condemn them

No Christian argues, as you do, the above, and that we should delete these scriptures, as they no longer apply, as you do:



1 Timothy 1:9 KJV

knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,


Galatians 3:24-25 KJV

Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.


Romans 3:20 KJV

Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Romans 7:7 KJV
What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.


Satanic.


You assert, on record, that the law no longer leads others to Christ, as the school master, since it no longer exists, and that others cannot know what sin is, since the law no longer exists.


The Ten Commandments, part of the law of Moses, which you say is abolished, are for the specific purpose of defining sin. This law, which defines sin, is described by Paul as being as "holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good"(Romans 7:12 KJV).


You say the law is abolished, and thus assert that everyone is saved, demon, as if there is no law, there is no transgression, and sin is not imputed, where there is no law.

You are on record-that is your satanic opinion, while I gave you chapter, and verse, in which to soak that "puffed up as a bullfrog in heat" head of yours. Of course, you are always right, aren't you, Pate?

One more time:

If the law was blotted out/did away, everyone would be saved:

1 John 3:4 KJV Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.


So, one of the definitions of sin is " the transgression of the law."

With me?


Now:

Romans 4:15 KJV because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.


Romans 5:13 KJV (for until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Thus, since sin is the transgression of the law, and, if it is true that there is no more "God's holy law," then, where there is no law, there is no transgression, whereby anyone can be accused, and sin cannot be imputed, if there is no law. Secular wise, for eg., if there is no law against speeding/going over a certain speed, no one can be charged with speeding/breaking a law-there is no law against speeding-no transgression.


You need to shuck this "the law was abolished/did away" assertion, and certainly not employ Colossians 2:14 KJV, or the Ephesians passage,in making your "argument," as "the handwriting of ordinances"/"the law of commandments" is not a reference to "God's holy law," the law of Moses, the 10 commandments.


Pate: Murder anyone!!! Steal!! Covet!!!!! The law was abolished, and no one can be condemned-there is no law!!!!!

I am only going to says this one more time.

THE LAW HAS BEEN ABOLISHED ONLY FOR CHRISTIANS.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
I am only going to says this one more time.

THE LAW HAS BEEN ABOLISHED ONLY FOR CHRISTIANS.

You have not been saying that in this thread, Pate. You need to clean this up,start paying attention to details, as eternal destinies are at stake, and others will continue to "beat you up," not taking you seriously. Here are your words:

"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil....In the Gospel Jesus full fills God's holy law and then abolishes it, "-Pate

You keep saying "the law was abolished,"one more time."

The bible is a book of details-why aren't you paying attention to details? Let me guess: you are always right, not "correctable."
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
You have not been saying that in this thread, Pate. You need to clean this up,start paying attention to details, as eternal destinies are at stake, and others will continue to "beat you up," not taking you seriously. Here are your words:

"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil....In the Gospel Jesus full fills God's holy law and then abolishes it, "-Pate

You keep saying "the law was abolished,"one more time."

The bible is a book of details-why aren't you paying attention to details? Let me guess: you are always right, not "correctable."

You are the one that is in error. I am not under the law, but it appears that you are.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
You are the one that is in error. I am not under the law, but it appears that you are.

Why, you deceitful slug. I never said that, Pate, and you know it, and you are changing your "argument," being "under" the devil. In contrast, you assert, on record, that the lost/sinners/ungodly are not subject/under the law, as it no longer exists/was abolished:

"There is only one law, Moses law. It was abolished when Jesus died on the cross, Matthew 27:51.....Not only was the law abolished, so was the Old Covenant and the Jewish religion.....The Old Covenant, the law and the Jewish religion have been abolished.……..Not only did Jesus abolish the law, he also abolished sin, death and the devil....In the Gospel Jesus full fills God's holy law and then abolishes it, "-Pate, disagreeing with me, when I assert that the law still exists for defining sin/showing the lost what sin is, leading others to Christ,=You are the one that is in error.


" I am not under the law,"-Pate

Irrelevant-I never argued that. You assert that the law no longer exists. That puts you under the devil, as no scripture says that.

Pate-on record, since the law no longer exists:


-everyone is saved
-the lost no longer, like Paul, the Galatians.....who were led to Christ, by the law, are no longer
-no longer are the lost given the knowledge of what sin is, through the law
-Murder, covetousness, theft.....................................are OK by Pate, as there is no law to condemn them
-deletes 1 Timothy 1:9 KJV, Galatians 3:24-25 KJV, Romans 3:20 KJV, Romans 7:7 KJV, Romans 4:15 KJV, Romans 3:4 KJV, Romans 5:13 KJV, 1 John 3:4 KJV
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
THE LAW HAS BEEN ABOLISHED ONLY FOR CHRISTIANS.

The law which was part of the Mosaic law was abolished by whom?

Paul explained that even a man's covenant cannot be amended or annulled.

Why do you believe the Father is that wishy-washy, one day okay, another day not okay, one day do this, another day don't?
 

Ask Mr. Religion

☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) &#9
Gold Subscriber
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
For the Christian there is no law. Where there is law there is judgment.

The law demands that you do something. There is NOTHING for us to do other than to live by faith. "THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH" Romans 1:17.

We live by faith in the work and the person of Jesus Christ, (The Gospel)
Robert, you are merely asserting. You have not interacted with the passage you are using for these assertions. You want the passage to bear more interpretative freight than it contains. Why not make an actual interpretative attempt and explaining what you think you have read and why you think thusly? There mere naked quotation of Scripture answers no dispute as to what said Scripture means to the writer of the passages nor to the intended recipients to whom the writer was writing. Hermeneutics is not a monologue, Robert. The author does not simply address the readers through the medium of the text, the text alone does not speak to the reader and the reader does not address only a silent text. A proper hermeneutical method is one that integrates three worlds: the author’s, the text’s, and the reader's. To rightly divide Scripture, Robert, try this four-step method:

First step- Word Focus: etymology, synonyms, antonyms
Second step- Word Relations: grammar, syntax
Third step- Context: immediate context, whole book context, whole Bible context.
Fourth step- Culture: Social—the customs of the times; Temporal—the period in history; Geographical—the place on earth.

Now, as for the verse you are appealing to, Eph. 2:15, let's look closely at what Paul has to say.

Eph. 2:14
For he is our peace
Paul here now includes Jews in the privilege of reconciliation, showing that through the one Messiah, all are united to God. This shuts down the false confidence of the Jews that despised the grace of Our Lord, boasting that they were the holy people, and chosen inheritance, of God. If Jesus Christ is our peace, all those who are out of Him must be at emnity with God. No one who is in Christ can doubt that he or she is reconciled to God.

Who hath made both one
That Jesus Christ is our peace was a necessary distinction. All interaction with the Gentiles was held to be inconsistent with the superior claims of the Jews. To subdue their pride, Paul tells the Jews that they and the Gentiles have been united into one body.

Accordingly, Paul reasons...
1. If the Jews wish to enjoy peace with God, they must have Christ as their Mediator.
2. But Christ will not be their peace in any other way than by making them one body with the Gentiles.
3. Therefore, unless the Jews admit the Gentiles to fellowship with them, they have no friendship with God.

And breaking down the middle wall of partition
From Scripture, we know by the will of God that the Jews were separated for a certain time from the Gentiles. We also know that ceremonial observances were the open and avowed symbols of that separation.

God had chosen the Jews to be a peculiar people to himself, passing over the Gentiles. Hence, a wide distinction was made, wherein the one class were “fellow-citizens and of the household” (see Ephesians 2:19) of the church, and the other class were foreigners. We see this plainly stated in the Song of Moses:
When the Most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of Israel: for the Lord’s portion is his people, Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.” (Deuteronomy 32:8,9)​

God fixed bounds to separate one people from the rest out of which arose the enmity Paul speaks about. The Gentiles were set aside. God was pleased to choose and sanctify the Jews by freeing them from the ordinary pollution of mankind. Afterwards, ceremonial observances were added, which enclosed (like walls) the inheritance of God, preventing it from being open to all peoples or mixed with other possessions, thereby excluding the Gentiles from the kingdom of God.

But now, says Paul, the enmity is removed, and the wall is broken down. By extending the privilege of adoption beyond the limits of Judea, Our Lord has now made us all to be brethren. Thus the prophecy is fulfilled: “God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem.” (Genesis 9:27)

Eph. 2:15
Having abolished in his flesh the enmity
The meaning of Paul's words is now made clear. The middle wall of partition hindered Our Lord from forming Jews and Gentiles into one body, therefore the wall has been broken down. Paul adds the reason—to abolish the enmity, by the flesh of Jesus Christ. In the assuming of a human nature common to all peoples, God the Son has formed in His own body a perfect unity.

Even the law of commandments contained in ordinances
The metaphorical wall is now plainly expressed by Paul. The ceremonies, expressions of the distinctions between Jew and Gentile, have been abolished through Jesus Christ. What were circumcision, sacrifices, washings, and abstaining from certain kinds of food, but symbols of sanctification, reminding the Jews that their lot was different from that of other nations. Not only does Paul declare that the Gentiles are equally with the Jews admitted to the fellowship of grace, so that they no longer differ from each other, but also Paul declares that the marks of these differences has been taken away for the ceremonies have been abolished. When an obligation is discharged, the handwriting is destroyed—a metaphor which Paul employs on this very subject in Colossians 2:14.

[A bonus teaching is also available here: In this passage the means of refuting an erroneous view held by some today is available. There are those that still claim circumcision and all the ancient rites, though they are not binding on the Gentiles, are in force at the present day upon the Jews. On this principle there would still be a middle wall of partition between them and us, which is proved to be false by Paul's clear teachings herein.]

That he might make in himself
By the use of in himself, Paul moves the Ephesians from seeing the diversity of men, and entreats them look for unity nowhere else but in Christ. To whatever extent Jew and Gentile might differ in their former condition, in Christ they are become one man. Paul emphatically adds, one new man, intimating to what he explains later that “neither circumcision, nor uncircumcision, availeth anything,” (Galatians 6:15,) but that “a new creature” holds the first and the last place. If we are all renewed by Jesus Christ, the Jews no longer can congratulate themselves on their ancient condition, but let the Jews be ready to admit that, both in themselves and in others, Christ is all.

To wrap up what Paul has been teaching, we see that in the following verse, Eph. 2:16, Paul adds another advantage derived from Jesus Christ, that all have been brought back into favor with God. The Jews have no less a need for a Mediator than do the Gentiles. Without a Mediator, neither the Law, nor ceremonies spoken of herein, nor their descent from Abraham, nor all their dazzling prerogatives, would be of any good. We are all sinners; and forgiveness of sins cannot be obtained but through the grace of Jesus Christ.

In this same verse Paul adds, in one body, to inform the Jews that to cultivate union with the Gentiles will be well-pleasing in God's sight. In this verse Paul points out the out the propitiatory sacrifice, by the cross. Sin lies as the cause of enmity between God and us and until it is removed, we shall not be restored to God's favor. Sin has been blotted out by the death of Christ, a death in which Our Lord offered Himself to God the Father as an expiatory victim. The cross is mentioned here for another reason, for it is through the cross that all ceremonies have been abolished. Accordingly, Paul writes, slaying the enmity thereby. These words, which no doubt relate to the cross, may also have two senses. One, that by HIs death, Our Lord has turned God the Father's anger towards us, or two, that having redeemed both Jews and Gentiles, Jesus Christ has brought them back into one flock. I think the latter to be the more probable interpretation, as it agrees with Eph. 2:15, abolishing in his flesh the enmity.

AMR
 
Last edited:

Samie

New member
Of course he lived for us. In our name and on our behalf he offered to God the Father a life of perfect obedience to his Holy law, Romans 5:19.

Of course he died for us, 2 Corinthians 5:21.

Jesus was God's new Adam and our new humanity, 2 Corinthians 5:17.

When Jesus lived, we lived in him, Romans 6:3.

When Jesus died, we died with him, Romans 6:6

When Jesus arose, we arose with him, Romans 6:11.


We are now "In Christ" in heaven, Colossians 3:3.

And you didn't know these things?
In another thread, you said that all died when He died BUT only those who accepted the gift of salvation were made alive.

You are almost on the right track. You just have to include everyone as being made alive TOGETHER with Him, not just the Christians. Remember, nobody was yet called a Christian, when Jesus died and rose again. Acts 11:26
 

KingdomRose

New member
What is man that You are mindful of him and the son of man that You visit him? For You have made him a little lower than the angels and You have crowned him with glory and honor. You have made him to have dominion over the works of Your hands, you have put all things under his feet. (Psalm 8:4-6)

But now we do not yet see all things put under him. (Hebrews 2:8)​

We are joint heirs with Jesus of all that exists. (But not yet)

That's not what I was talking about. I said that Jesus being "one" with God doesn't mean that he IS God. Like the DISCIPLES are "one" with Jesus and the Father. (John 17:20-22) If he is God then they are too. Do you think you are going to be God?
 
Top