Jesus is God !

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It means when you baptize someone, speak the words "In the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit".
Nowhere does scripture say to "speak" those specific words. That's man-made tradition talking.

In the Church (i.e., the body of Christ) there is ONE baptism and there is not a single drop of water involved.
Eph 4:4-6 KJV There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; (5) One Lord, one faith, one baptism, (6) One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
This is that ONE baptism:
1Co 12:12-13 KJV For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. (13) For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
 

Idolater

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Only on a Protestant forum would I get skubalon for saying to quote the Bible.
 

oatmeal

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Jesus is God when we consider this:

Compare Isa 40:3

3 The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord[Jehovah], make straight in the desert a highway for our God[elohim].

Fulfilled with Jesus Christ here Mk 1:1-3

The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;

2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.

3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord[kyrios] make his paths straight.

Clearly the Lord Jehovah is Isa 40:3 is the Lord Jesus Christ in Mk 1:3 John the Baptist is the one with the voice crying in the wilderness, hes the forerunner of the Lord !
When people realize that God is Lord and therefore His son would be a lord as well, then the much of the confusion about both God and Jesus Christ being lord ceases
 

JudgeRightly

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But all three items are in the genitive case in both Greek and English.

Again, so what?

"Name" in Matthew 28:19 is singular in both the Greek and in English. You cannot get around this fact.

There is ONE NAME of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. His name is I AM.

The fact that there are three Persons who have that same name only proves my position, which is that God is triune, three in one.
 

Omniskeptical

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Again, so what?

"Name" in Matthew 28:19 is singular in both the Greek and in English. You cannot get around this fact.
If it were plural, there would be more than 3. You can't get around the triple possessive.
There is ONE NAME of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. His name is I AM.
If you would be correct, the term YHWH doesn't mean I AM. It means he causes what has been.
The fact that there are three Persons who have that same name only proves my position, which is that God is triune, three in one.
But it is three names, and it is into/for the name and not in the name of the father, then of the son, then of the holy spirit. And it is this way in Greek. If it were one name, it would be written like 'into the name of the father, and the son, and the holy spirit. You have 3 of's, and not one. Thus you have 3 names and not 1 name and 1 of.
 

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If it were plural, there would be more than 3.
It's not plural, so your point it pointless.
You can't get around the triple possessive.
:sleep:
If you would be correct, the term YHWH doesn't mean I AM. It means he causes what has been.
All three of them are the one that causes what has been.
But it is three names, and it is into/for the name and not in the name of the father, then of the son, then of the holy spirit.
That's not what the BIBLE says.
And it is this way in Greek. If it were one name, it would be written like 'into the name of the father, and the son, and the holy spirit. You have 3 of's, and not one. Thus you have 3 names and not 1 name and 1 of.
The three ARE one.
 

Lon

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Only on a Protestant forum would I get skubalon for saying to quote the Bible.
1) is it appropriate to characterize a question so?
2) his post was addressing 'if' it were a Bible quote? Wouldn't all you would have needed, was to post the quoted 'scripture' verbatim? 🤔
3) Try not to be so easily offended? I'd think a Catholic 'could' have asked the same question, couldn't they? Is it not allowed, in Catholic circles, to ask for a scripture reference? Was it an exCathedra proclamation that cannot be challenged by scripture or something?
 

Idolater

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1) is it appropriate to characterize a question so?
2) his post was addressing 'if' it were a Bible quote? Wouldn't all you would have needed, was to post the quoted 'scripture' verbatim? 🤔
3) Try not to be so easily offended? I'd think a Catholic 'could' have asked the same question, couldn't they? Is it not allowed, in Catholic circles, to ask for a scripture reference? Was it an exCathedra proclamation that cannot be challenged by scripture or something?
" . . . if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as an heathen man and a publican."

I’m instructed to regard you as an idolater.

Go to Mass.
 

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" . . . if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as an heathen man and a publican."
When quoting scripture, please include book, chapter and verse so that we can look for ourselves.

Note that the "church" referred to in Matthew 18 is NOT the body of Christ (which did NOT yet exist).
I’m instructed to regard you as an idolater.
Funny coming from a Romanist who's "church" teaches lots of idolatry.
Go to Mass.
No thanks. I stay away from idolatry.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
When quoting scripture, please include book, chapter and verse so that we can look for ourselves.
In Romans 9:24 Paul says that the Church is composed of both Gentiles and those of the nation of Israel.
Note that the "church" referred to in Matthew 18 is NOT the body of Christ (which did NOT yet exist).
There is only one good olive tree. It has its natural branches, it has branches that are wild by nature but grafted into it, and it has the broken off natural branches that also are grafted into it Romans 11
Funny coming from a Romanist who's "church" teaches lots of idolatry.
Bald assertion.
No thanks. I stay away from idolatry.
You just stay away from Mass and the Real Presence of the Lord Jesus Christ Matthew 18:20
 

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In Romans 9:24 Paul says that the Church is composed of both Gentiles and those of the nation of Israel.
No kidding.
Under God's plan for the earth, believing Israel leads the believing gentiles. Both are accepted by God.
In the body of Christ there is NEITHER Jew NOR Greek. Gal 3:28, Col 3:11
There is only one good olive tree. It has its natural branches, it has branches that are wild by nature but grafted into it, and it has the broken off natural branches that also are grafted into it Romans 11
Yes, this is referring to a time BEFORE the body of Christ was established.
Bald assertion.
Pure fact.
You just stay away from Mass and the Real Presence of the Lord Jesus Christ Matthew 18:20
The Romanist Mass has nothing to do with Christ. It is an abomination.

I'm IN Christ without the need for Romanist hocus pocus.
Col 3:1-4 KJV If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God. (2) Set your affection on things above, not on things on the earth. (3) For ye are dead, and your life is hid with Christ in God. (4) When Christ, who is our life, shall appear, then shall ye also appear with him in glory.
 

JudgeRightly

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If it were plural,

It's not plural.

there would be more than 3.

Father, Son, Holy Spirit.

That's three.

One name, three Persons.

You can't get around the triple possessive.

Your point?

If you would be correct, the term YHWH doesn't mean I AM. It means he causes what has been.

Because you say so?

But it is three names,

Once again: "Name" in both the greek and in the english is singular. There is ONE name. It belongs to THREE Persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

If it were one name, it would be written like 'into the name of the father, and the son, and the holy spirit. You have 3 of's, and not one. Thus you have 3 names and not 1 name and 1 of.

Because you say so?

As I said above, there are three Persons mentioned.

Yet only one "name" is referenced, which belongs to the three Persons.

You can't get around that.
 

Omniskeptical

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Person? A Hypostasis is a distinction, not a person. The early church fathers thought the God to be one person.

Also, name also has a wide meaning including reputation. The name of 666 is mammon. It isn't added, but rather the name of Herod. And if KAI is consecutive, the passage for should read 'into' or "for the name/authority of the father, then of the son, then of the holy spirit". Hardly, the concrete proof you so desire, or self-delude with.
 
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