Hi everyone,
Lee: How can we explain the first verse, then?
Revelation 1:1 The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place
God_Is_Truth: how do you explain that the things to "soon take place" have not come "soon" at all? 2000 years is not soon in any sense.
Well, I believe it started right away, Revelation is not all about the great tribulation, and let's remember our 2 Peter, 2000 years, that's two days, so far...
Lee: And how can "true and faithful" be "these things," referring clearly to what is being said, not to an intent behind them! And if what is meant is the intent, then the reference here should be singular ("this thing"), not plural.
God_Is_Truth: there IS intent behind them, but if the people repent, so will God.
Well, this does not address my question, though? How can "these things" actually mean an intent? Especially when the first is plural, and the second is singular. And this is an odd way to say "this intent," in any case.
And can people always repent? Part of the prophecy of Revelation is that certain people will not repent!
Revelation 9:20 The rest of mankind, who were not killed by these plagues, did not repent...
So if they repent, then we erase this verse? It wasn't written?
If people in some instances cannot repent, and God can foresee the future, then God can make such a prophecy, and this also cannot be based on character solidification...
God_Is_Truth: saying it doesn't make it so!
The summary depends on my arguments, though!
Blessings,
Lee