Good point.
(Rom 1:16) For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes: first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.
In the above, Paul tells us he preached "the gospel" to the Jew first.
ECT How is Paul's message different?
- Thread starter Clete
- Start date
Good point.
(Rom 1:16) For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes: first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.
In the above, Paul tells us he preached "the gospel" to the Jew first.
Right Divider
Body part
It simply does NOT say that.
turbosixx
New member
It makes perfect sense. Souls are being saved, it makes no difference who or what you are.
So then, those who had received his word were baptized; and that day there were added about three thousand souls.
No, that's exactly what it says.
Paul says he preached the gospel to the Jews first.
Right Divider
Body part
Rom 1:13-17 KJV Now I would not have you ignorant, brethren, that oftentimes I purposed to come unto you, (but was let hitherto,) that I might have some fruit among you also, even as among other Gentiles. (14) I am debtor both to the Greeks, and to the Barbarians; both to the wise, and to the unwise. (15) So, as much as in me is, I am ready to preach the gospel to you that are at Rome also. (16) For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. (17) For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
Paul says that he is not ashamed of the gospel of Christ and that it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes.
NOWHERE in THIS does he say anything about preaching to someone first.
Hi and in Acts 9:15 , the ORDER for Paul, was to preach to :
#1 , Gentiles
#2 , Kings
#3 And the children of Israel
dan p
That's a very good point.
When it bears out it does so due to the very important principle found throughout Scripture - that what a thing appears to be saying, and what it is actually saying, are not always one and the same thing.
The "dividing" line betwen the two?
Well, it often appears anyone's say.
lifeisgood
New member
No, it does not.
Right Divider
Body part
Dan p, that scripture does list these three, but does NOT order them as to priority or time or anything else.
Paul straightway preached to the Jews and they refused to hear, then Paul was sent to the gentiles. Paul fulfilled all three Acts 9:15 KJV -
Please explain how Paul didn't preach the gospel to the Jew first in the following verse:
(Rom 1:16) For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes: first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.
Paul tried going to the Jews first, straightway, but they tried to kill him. Then he was sent to the gentiles.
Acts 13:50 KJV - Acts 14:1 KJV -
That's not what the verse says.
The verse says Paul did preach the gospel to the Jew first.
Paul also said he had to preach the gospel to the Jew first.
However, the Jews rejected it, so Paul then turned to preaching the gospel to the Gentiles.
(Acts 13:46) Then Paul and Barnabas answered them boldly: "We had to speak the word of God to you first. Since you reject it and do not consider yourselves worthy of eternal life, we now turn to the Gentiles.
This causes really big problems for your MAD because MAD claims a different gospel was preached to the Jews.
That's what I said, he went straightway to the Jews in the synagogues - THEN he was sent to the gentiles. He tried to go to Jews first.
No. Only SOME MADs assert that was the case; though very few, in contrast to the many who do not. I don't.
As Paul's "to the Jew first" that he opens Romans with; he relates what he means by that in Romans 15. That that HAD been the order of his preaching in Acts.
While what he says in Acts 13 and Acts 18, etc., and also in Romans 1-3 and 9-11 tell the reader WHY he would go to the Jews first back when he was doing that.
Again, its like that article I posted about Preterism (which some on here right off concluded I might be promoting Preterism; talk about ignorance).
I posted it to show that all your ranting that MADs can't agree with one another leaves out the fact that neither do Preterists.
Again, MADs differ in their understanding about what Paul was doing when and where and or what he meant by one thing or another.
While some of the ones on here are nowhere near the level in understanding of their view as some of their other ones on here.
So please - quit lumping all MADs together - even those from within a same school.
Its your doing so that "is a mess."
Interesting, I ask that you compare and you come back and call me a liar.
Very well. Its your loss.
The best to you in that.
This has probably already been said but needs to be said again; Peter spoke to the Jews and they were to repent and be baptized. Paul spoke to the Gentiles. They were to remember the DBR of Jesus. Two people groups, two messages.
Acts 9:20 KJV -
Yes I know.
Paul preached the gospel to the Jews first.
It's your MAD that claims the Jews had a different gospel preached to them.