And I've asked you what I have avoided or deflected from. You see, I'm happy to answer any question put to me so I'm asking you what your specific question/s is/are. I believe there are some who wish to twist the doctrine of the Trinity into something that was never intended, a dismissal of the three consubstantial persons and there is nothing in Scripture to support that. It's tough enough to find any Scripture supporting the original doctrine let alone the twisted version.
As I said, go back to my original post directed at you in this thread, and proceed from there. As you seem loathe to answer them, I am loathe to repeat them. I've given you plenty and just as you did here, you deny there is anything to address.
Yes, there is punctuation in the ancient Greek. It began about 200 years before Yeshua. It's called théseis and there are differing aspects of théseis: hypostigmḗ - a low punctus on the baseline to mark off a komma (unit smaller than a clause);
stigmḕ mésē - a punctus at midheight to mark off a clause (kōlon); and
stigmḕ teleía - a high punctus to mark off a sentence (periodos).
Most KNOW what théseis is, or at least they can look it up. This was used for those who were learning Greek, not for Greeks. Modern scholars KNOW the difference and don't need the punctuation invented by Aristophanes.
This is simply deflection on your part to justify supporting your contention that there was punctuation in the original NT manuscripts, when there was NOT. It is simply self serving to foster acceptance of your fallacious POV.
http://greek-language.com/grklinguist/?p=657
Now you're just being obtuse.
Why? Because I won't leave you wriggle room to equivocate? Trust me that is NOT being obtuse, and I'm sure you know it. Just like you know you are avoiding answering this.
I didn't say that. I did post J.P. Green's Interlinear as well as the UBS' Greek/English Interlinear translation of John 1:18 , specifically the words "in the bosom of the Father" which is found in the KJV 1611 and all subsequent versions of the KJV. You threw my understanding of English context regarding John 1:18 into question and I have merely pointed out that my understanding of the context is the same as many other peoples understanding, that being that Yeshua is not God the Father, He is the Son of God, "in the bosom of the Father." Seeing as how you stated "It says what it says," and you have such an aversion to Hebrew, I thought I'd point out to you that Scripture never said "Jesus" but rather Iesous in the Greek and that is what was in the Geneva before Kingeth Jameth began the 1611 revision of the Bishop's Bible of 1568, neither of which had "j's" in them either. We all would be wise to stay abreast of changes made to Scripture.
Well it was inferred, and these two have nothing to do with the KJV, which was done in 1611, as the AV confirms. Regardless, what is the bosom of the Father, if the Father is God and Spirit? The fact that you strive about this word shows you are not really sure what it indicates. FYI the Greek word κόλπος (kolpos), used here for bosom, is NOT in John 13:23, but the KJV still uses bosom. So you can either start using more modern translations to facilitate your understanding of God's written word, or you can stick with the 400+ years old non-relative English of the KJV.
Bottom line here, is that you strive about a word for nothing more than subverting those who don't know any better. I am NOT one of those.
I believe I've been making plenty of points. I can not force you to acknowledge them. It's like bringing a horse to water....
and ignored my refutations to them, which basically invalidates them.
When I converse with someone, Stan, it is with the reasonable expectation that they are keeping track of their own words so they can keep up their end of the conversation. If I wanted to converse with myself, I would, but in this case I am conversing (albeit in writing) with you. You stated, "It says what it says..." and my point to you is that it does not say what you and others say it says. It doesn't say that Yeshua is God Himself. Not even Yeshua states that He is God the Father despite those verses you repeatedly post.
and yet you ask me to remind you of your answers or what you didn't answer? That seems awfully convenient for you.
Jesus said He is God Himself, and I've given you His words, which you have ignored. From experience, it doesn't help for me to continually quote scripture you refuse to address, or avoid doing so. You last sentence above clearly indicates your unwillingness to ACCEPT what God's word and Jesus DOES say.
Jesus said: I and the Father are one.
Jesus said: If you've seen me you've seen the Father.
Jesus said: If you knew me, you would know my Father also.
Jesus said: You shall worship the Lord your God, and serve Him only.
Jesus said: If you do not believe that I am He, you will indeed die in your sins.
Jesus said: You call me ‘Teacher’ and ‘Lord,’ and rightly so, for that is what I am.
Jesus said: Don’t you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you I do not speak on my own authority. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work.
Jesus said: “Very truly I tell you, before Abraham was born, I am!”
His words stand very clearly on their own as the "Cautions in Application" section at that site declares. Thank you for posting that url. It supports my statements.
Yes, His words do stand on their own, so I suggest you read them clearly and take off your dogmatic glasses that distort the truth of scripture.