Did God become flesh?

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Dartman

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More of this lazy slug's refusal to pay attention to details, displaying his lackadaisical, careless disregard for the book, a book of details. Of course, he is an admitted bible corrector, bot bible believer.

John 4:24 KJV
Godis a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.


"is a Spirit"-not "is Spirit"


You: It all says the same thing, you see, uh, urr............

And we are attempting to have an intelligent conversation with him, , "persuade" Him?


Not me.
Your venom is not persuasive.
 

Apple7

New member
Joh 1:18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.

John 1.18


θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε μονογενης θεος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο

Theon oudeis heōraken pōpote monogenēs Theos ho ōn eis ton kolpon tou Patros ekeinos exēgēsato

No one has seen God at any time; but the unique One, Himself God, who is in the bosom of the Father, that One declares Him.
 

SabathMoon

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John 1.18


θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε μονογενης θεος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο

Theon oudeis heōraken pōpote monogenēs Theos ho ōn eis ton kolpon tou Patros ekeinos exēgēsato

No one has seen God at any time; but the unique One, Himself God, who is in the bosom of the Father, that One declares Him.

Do you know why the Greek you quoted is flawed?

You also fail to give verse references in post #918
 

Jacob

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Not the point.
I mean I read the English, and there was a missing word.
Which word?
You wrote,
f1f3e6aa9030e1a2a7b032d70c501911.jpg
The word where there is a hyphen or dash instead of a word.
There are thousands of Greek manuscripts, but I recommend, if you're looking to study up on the Greek New Testament, that you look at the Wescott-Hort Greek New Testament.

It is the most accurate, even if it is the most controversial.
Interesting. Well I do not know what to do with your comment here. Accurate and controversial run different ways.
So did I.

It's saying the same thing, but like I said, some of the meaning is lost.

It's not a thought.
Okay then.
You're welcome?
You are polite, thanks.

From the Word was God to God was the Word or from God was the Word to the Word was God?
Basically, if a phrase has a sentence structure like this:

... the [noun] and the [noun] ...

Then it is speaking of two different entities.

But, if a phrase has a sentence structure like this:

... the [noun] and [noun] ...

Then it is speaking of one entity.

Here are two examples, the first is speaking of two people, the second is speaking of one person.

"The father and the husband went to the store."

"The father and husband went to the store."
Okay, but this last one might be two people if you didn't know someone intended to show a difference between the two.
I recommend you reread that article again, this time slowly.
I wonder who created the rule. And for what reason. And upon what basis it was established.
I also recommend you read this article as well.

https://www.theopedia.com/granville-sharps-rule
What is the difference between KAI and HO? What are these words about?
 

meshak

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Real tough old lady, are you troll?

No, troll. you are to answer the last 100 questions I have addressed to you, which you craftily, satanically dismiss, ignore, with sound bytes.


So there, little old hag.

You still cannot refute these fact, big bad wolf.

"my Father is greater than I"
that his Father is "the ONLY true God".
That Jehovah is his Father, and our Father, his GOD, and our God.
That Jesus does NOT know the day, nor the hour of his return, but the Father does.
That Jesus is NOT the source of the words he spoke, his God is.
 

SabathMoon

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John 1.18


θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε μονογενης θεος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο

Theon oudeis heōraken pōpote monogenēs Theos ho ōn eis ton kolpon tou Patros ekeinos exēgēsato

No one has seen God at any time; but the unique One, Himself God, who is in the bosom of the Father, that One declares Him.

μονογενης θεος should be μονογενης υιος

It is supposed to mean uniquely begotten son, not uniquely begotten god.
 

SabathMoon

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Wallace refined his method, and is now bullet-proof.

Try again...

No it isn't. You take one word with the article and two words of description to the right and divide them with a kai. Thus two words describe the first word using kai. Words are also sometimes more than 1 wordage too.
 

Apple7

New member
No it isn't. You take one word with the article and two words of description to the right and divide them with a kai. Thus two words describe the first word using kai. Words are also sometimes more than 1 wordage too.

“Our restatement of Sharp’s rule is believed to be true to the nature of the language, and able to address all classes of exceptions that were raised.

The “Sharper” rule is as follows:

In native Greek constructions (i.e., not translation Greek), when a single article modifies two substantives connected via και (thus, article-substantive-και-substantive), when both substantives are (1) singular (both grammatically and semantically), (2) personal, (3) and common nouns (not proper names or ordinals), they have the same referent.”

Ref:
Granville Sharp’s Canon and its Kin; Semantics and Significance
2009 Daniel B. Wallace
p. 281
 

SabathMoon

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“Our restatement of Sharp’s rule is believed to be true to the nature of the language, and able to address all classes of exceptions that were raised.

The “Sharper” rule is as follows:

In native Greek constructions (i.e., not translation Greek), when a single article modifies two substantives connected via και (thus, article-substantive-και-substantive), when both substantives are (1) singular (both grammatically and semantically), (2) personal, (3) and common nouns (not proper names or ordinals), they have the same referent.”

Ref:
Granville Sharp’s Canon and its Kin; Semantics and Significance
2009 Daniel B. Wallace
p. 281

It isn't true because the Greek article has to match case in wordages, and there are mass substantives in Greek, because Koine doesn't have a second article. I find that as talented as Wallace is, he still often wrong or confused about Koine grammar in parts.
 

Apple7

New member
It isn't true because the Greek article has to match case in wordages, and there are mass substantives in Greek, because Koine doesn't have a second article. I find that as talented as Wallace is, he still often wrong or confused about Koine grammar in parts.

His refined rule came out a decade ago, and has not been refuted.

Perhaps you, who has SUB-ZERO Greek experience can now refute his rule?

:cigar:
 
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