Did Christ die for all men?

heir

TOL Subscriber
I've already provided an excerpt from the passage where he was preaching - or rather the results thereof. But since you don't want to look it up for some reason - I'll post a larger excerpt for you:


Acts 10:34-46 Then Peter opened his mouth and said: “In truth I perceive that God shows no partiality. 35 But in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him. 36 The word which God sent to the children of Israel, preaching peace through Jesus Christ—He is Lord of all— 37 that word you know, which was proclaimed throughout all Judea, and began from Galilee after the baptism which John preached: 38 how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him. 39 And we are witnesses of all things which He did both in the land of the Jews and in Jerusalem, whom they[e] killed by hanging on a tree. 40 Him God raised up on the third day, and showed Him openly, 41 not to all the people, but to witnesses chosen before by God, even to us who ate and drank with Him after He arose from the dead. 42 And He commanded us to preach to the people, and to testify that it is He who was ordained by God to be Judge of the living and the dead. 43 To Him all the prophets witness that, through His name, whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins.”

44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. 45 And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46 For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.​
That's not the gospel of Christ!
 

csuguy

Well-known member
That's not the gospel of Christ!

Sure it is - and this fact is unquestionable since the Holy Spirit descended upon them as a result. You simply don't want to accept this passage. You have no meaningful argument against it.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Sure it is - and this fact is unquestionable since the Holy Spirit descended upon them as a result. You simply don't want to accept this passage. You have no meaningful argument against it.

No. It isn't. The gospel of Christ is the good news that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day as declared by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV:

1 Corinthians 15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

1 Corinthians 15:2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

1 Corinthians 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

1 Corinthians 15:4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

Peter DID NOT preach it to Corne! You're not fooling anyone here!
 

csuguy

Well-known member
No. It isn't. The gospel of Christ is the good news that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day as declared by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV:

1 Corinthians 15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

1 Corinthians 15:2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

1 Corinthians 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

1 Corinthians 15:4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

Peter DID NOT preach it to Corne! You're not fooling anyone here!


Clearly you need to work on your reading comprehension, because Peter does preach this in that passage. He uses his own words to express it, but its all there.

Again - you have no meaningful critique of the passage. It simply contradicts you and so you refuse to acknowledge what it says.
 

Sonnet

New member
Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

Galatians 3:29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

^^^^^^Those to whom Paul was first sent. They were in the promise. They had a hope.

and

Ephesians 2:11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

Ephesians 2:12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

^^^^^^^^^^They were aliens and strangers, had no hope in time past

Both are in the one Body of Christ.

The first group gathered OUT of Israel into the Body (remnannt according to the election of grace which God foreknew (Romans 11:1-6 KJV)

The second fellowheirs and of the same Body though never having anything to do with Israel/partakers by the gospel (Ephesians 3:6 KJV).

So what is it that you think you have shown? What are you trying to prove?

The fist group are Galatians. You are saying they are Jews?
 

Sonnet

New member
No. It isn't. The gospel of Christ is the good news that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day as declared by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV:

1 Corinthians 15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

1 Corinthians 15:2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

1 Corinthians 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

1 Corinthians 15:4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

Peter DID NOT preach it to Corne! You're not fooling anyone here!

You have already been shown that Paul preached the Gospel to Jews. Why is this such an issue?
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Clearly you need to work on your reading comprehension, because Peter does preach this in that passage. He uses his own words to express it, but its all there.
It's no more there than it is in Acts 2! You are making things up to make your religion work, but it's just not there!
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Again - you have no meaningful critique of the passage. It simply contradicts you and so you refuse to acknowledge what it says.


Peter preached,


Acts 10:35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.


which is contrary to what Paul preached


Titus 3:5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;


Peter preached the gospel of the kingdom:


Acts 10:36 The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (he is Lord of all

Acts 10:37 That word, I say, ye know, which was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached;

Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.


Peter delivers the murder indictment, but that God raised Christ up just as he preached in Acts 2 and 3


Acts 10:39 And we are witnesses of all things which he did both in the land of the Jews, and in Jerusalem; whom they slew and hanged on a tree:

Acts 10:40 Him God raised up the third day, and shewed him openly;

Acts 10:41 Not to all the people, but unto witnesses chosen before of God, even to us, who did eat and drink with him after he rose from the dead.


And it's all about the name (Matthew 16:15-18 KJV, the book of John) and please notice that through His name whosoever believeth on Him shall receive remission of sins. That is consistent with the gospel of the kingdom.


Acts 10:42 And he commanded us to preach unto the people, and to testify that it is he which was ordained of God to be the Judge of quick and dead.

Acts 10:43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.


Peter's usual order of business was to deliver a murder indictment and preach a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins and in so doing they shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 2:36-38 KJV), but before he could finish his usual, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.


Acts 10:44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.

Acts 10:45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Acts 10:46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,

They were astonished at what happens because it was out of order, but what does Peter do? He continues to preach what he knows and that's water baptism in the name of the Lord!

Acts 10:47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

Acts 10:48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.


Corne and his house heard what Peter preached, but there is no gospel of Christ to be believed there!
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
I am astonished that you are suggesting it isn't.

Why???
Where does it say that "Christ died for our sins" was the good news Peter preached to Cornelius' house? It doesn't! It wasn't preached by Peter to Cornelius! No gospel of Christ=no possible entry into the Body of Christ
 
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