You say that I do not correctly interpret the meaning of Scriptures but you do not say where I make an error.
And of course you just ignore verses which contradict your ideas, like this one which demonstrates that David was saved apart from works:
"But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" (Ro.4:5-8).
We can also see here that those who lived under the law were saved by grace through faith:
" Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all" (Ro.4:16).
If keeping the works of the law was necessary for salvation in regard to those under the law then their salvation could not be described as being on the principle of grace.
Those two verses alone prove that those who were under the law did not have to do works to be saved and that is why you refuse to address them.