Well, your new criteria "time did tell" is contradictory to your "time will tell" criteria.By extant historical experience (mine and others') and by my own subjective sense of right and wrong.
Exactely my point!I have no way of assessing the probability implicit in "very possible". The weak spot in your argument is that, in a pure democracy, that it is relatively easy to pass any law or ordinance that the majority agrees with. But, as the old saying goes, "the devil's in the details". For instance, in the example you gave, the perception of "evil" would depend entirely on one's viewpoint. If you were a woman, or a romantic, it's likely that you would perceive the moral value of the law (good or evil) differently than if you were a man.
Only from your perspective as a moral relativist. From my perspective I can make a determination ahead of time if a law is "good" or "bad" or even "evil"!Your argument also begs the point that many (possibly most?)laws are not inherently "good" or "evil", they are merely laws.
In your opinion is your subjective sense of right and wrong any more right or wrong than my sense?by my own subjective sense of right and wrong.
That is true and I agree with you.Originally posted by Hank
Many people say they believe in absolute morals but determining what the absolute is, is a real problem.
It merely demonstrates that there are multiple tools available. For some jobs I use a hammer and for others a pair of pliers, metaphorically speaking. You sound like you are searching for the mother of all Swiss Army Knives, kind of a "one tool does it all"...Originally posted by Knight
Well, your new criteria "time did tell" is contradictory to your "time will tell" criteria.
Then we agree. Wasn't that easy?Exactely my point!
You know Knight, we could really carry on meaniful dialogue if you'd read my previous responses before firing off a response to something I haven't said...snipped Knight's non-germaine question about non-existent slavery...
Well good for you. So can I, based upon the criteria we've already discussed....From my perspective I can make a determination ahead of time if a law is "good" or "bad" or even "evil"!
Since I do not know you personally, I can't reasonably be expected to make a general statement. Other than your postings on this website, I have little by which to measure your "sense".In your opinion is your subjective sense of right and wrong any more right or wrong than my sense?
Then how about trotting out some of your evidence and stop playing word games about sexual deviancy and slavery...Originally posted by Knight
..I think there is AMPLE evidence to suggest that moral absolutes do indeed ...
Apparently we have a different idea of what "subjective" means.Since I do not know you personally, I can't reasonably be expected to make a general statement. Other than your postings on this website, I have little by which to measure your "sense".
Why should I define a word that you used to describe your world view? Wouldn't it make more sense for you to define "subjective" since it was you who used the word initially????Perhaps you'd like to explain what you mean when you use the term "subjective" in the context of this discussion.
By extant historical experience (mine and others') and by my own subjective sense of right and wrong.
Because you stated that you do not think we use the word the same way...Originally posted by Knight Why should I define a word that you used to describe your world view? Wouldn't it make more sense for you to define "subjective" since it was you who used the word initially????
Apparently we have a different idea of what "subjective" means.
I agree with your point to a limited extent. For many of the posters on this board, the "absolute" might be "the Bible" or "what the Bible says". The difficulty is getting them to agree, absolutely, on the second one...
However, it is far more relevant to determine if such a thing exists than it is to discuss its attributes.
If absolutes exist, a god exists. If no god exists than there is nothing more to reality than atoms and molecules and atoms and molecules cannot be "evil" or "righteous". I think there is AMPLE evidence to suggest that moral absolutes do indeed exist and the vast majority of these absolutes are acknowledged by the vast majority of humans living and that have ever lived on this planet.
What a fantastic observation!Originally posted by ClaypoolKid
“I would suggest that the "right" and "wrong" of a law should be evaluated by its effects.”--- Zakath
Sorry Zakath, but by your standards alone this would be a completely unworkable method and does not provide any solutions. If you can’t determine the “right” or “wrong” of a law how could you determine the “right” or “wrong” of the effect? Laws implemented by the Nazis resulted in millions of dead Jews. For the Nazis this was the desired effect of the laws and thus they declared the laws “good”. (I hope you would not agree with this.) So with this evaluation method moral relativist are left with their tires spinning.
Governments make laws affecting many areas of life including those not directly "moral" or where "morality" is a bit fuzzy.Originally posted by ClaypoolKid
?I would suggest that the "right" and "wrong" of a law should be evaluated by its effects.?--- Zakath
Sorry Zakath, but by your standards alone this would be a completely unworkable method and does not provide any solutions. If you can?t determine the ?right? or ?wrong? of a law how could you determine the ?right? or ?wrong? of the effect?
On the other side, it also forced millions of Jews to leave Europe and promoted the cause of Zionism and the founding of the Israeli state in 1948.Laws implemented by the Nazis resulted in millions of dead Jews.
Not really, what we are left with is the idea of relativism; that what is bad for one group may be good for another.So with this evaluation method moral relativist are left with their tires spinning.
Example , please. Here on TOL, it's usually the religionists that are running around re-defining terms to suit their theories...I also get a bit annoyed with how the vocabularies of liberals (a.k.a. moral relativist) seem to shrink when talking about morality.
I cannot speak for anyone but myself, but I use the terms "right" and "wrong" frequently. The issue, as I mentioned above is that the religionist side keeps shifting meanings. For example, I am unaware to which of the tens of thousands of religious sects in the world that you belong. One of the reasons those sects exist is because they see things differently. Were we to have any ongoing discussion I might ask you to define your terms to make certain we were both referring to similar ideas during the discussion.I think this discussion should be able to move forward without all the squabbles concerning the definitions of the words ?right?, ?wrong? and ?absolute?. I am sure that Zakath and other liberals have used these words in other conversations many times without the confusion.
That's where we disagree. The issues are very commonly, not simple at all.We are talking about simple issues of right and wrong.
I seem to sense a bit of malice dripping from that term "liberal". Firstly, I'm not really a liberal, I'm more of a libertarian. And secondly, I have no fear of actual truth when I am exposed to it. It's just that "absolute truth" gets lost in dispensationalism and other verbal sleight of hand when religionists use the term...There is nothing for you liberals to be scared of. Unless you have a fear of truth.
Originally posted by Knight
Question #1
Can a government (ANY GOVERNMENT) pass or inact a law that is wrong?
Yes and no. To answer that entirely objectively, we need an entirely objective, universal, absolute definition of what is "wrong." That doesn't exist. There is no such definition that is agreed upon by all. So the best we can do is to say that a government can pass or inact a law that is wrong within the framework of understanding of the society for which that government operates. Likewise, a government can pass a law that is seen as perfectly acceptable within its own bailiwick, but is seen as wrong from other frameworks. It was perfectly acceptable to the forefathers of the United States to establish and enact laws that provided for punishment for thievery. However, whenever those laws were enforced upon some of the local Native American tribes, tribes who had no concept of ownership (and thus no concept of stealing) it was obviously viewed as a wrong sort of law.
Question #2
If a society (ANY SOCIETY) deems something socially acceptable, can the society be wrong?
It's relative, again, to the society. Underage drinking is acceptable in Amish society. To the Amish, it isn't wrong. However, that Amish society exists as a subset of a greater society, within which underage drinking is not only seen as wrong, but is regulated as a matter of law. It all depends on where you draw the boundaries of society.
Question #3
In a democracy, can the majority be wrong?
Again, it requires a definition of "wrong" that is objective within the society in question. And even then, it can only be defined as wrong within that society and within any society that shares that definition.
Originally posted by goose
It was "socially acceptable" to haul Jews off to be slaughtered in Nazi Germany. It was their opinion to do so. I'm also sure that's it's your opinion that this was wrong. How would we go about deciding who is more right, with no standard or authority to appeal to?
Originally posted by ClaypoolKid
“I would suggest that the "right" and "wrong" of a law should be evaluated by its effects.”--- Zakath
Sorry Zakath, but by your standards alone this would be a completely unworkable method and does not provide any solutions. If you can’t determine the “right” or “wrong” of a law how could you determine the “right” or “wrong” of the effect? Laws implemented by the Nazis resulted in millions of dead Jews. For the Nazis this was the desired effect of the laws and thus they declared the laws “good”. (I hope you would not agree with this.) So with this evaluation method moral relativist are left with their tires spinning.