ARGH!!! Calvinism makes me furious!!!

godrulz

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The bride illustration relating to Israel is different from the bride illustration about the Church. National Israel is not the same thing as the invisible Church. The Old Covenant is different than the New Covenant. The third category of Old Testament Jews, NT uncircumcision believers and NT circumcision believers for a short period in Church history is not explicit in Scripture (i.e. not 2 gospels to 2 groups of Christians...obviously those with a Jewish background would understand the foundation of Christianity better than the pagan Gentiles). There is an Old Covenant illustration with Israel and a New Covenant illustration with all NT believers, the Church, whether their background before Christ was Jew or Gentile.

Israel= bride

Church= bride, but not identical to the Israel imagery.

I agree their is a difference between Israel and the Church and the bride illustration in each case (context).
 

Rolf Ernst

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G.I.T.--God's people are referred to as both the body of Christ and His bride because both terms are needed to depict the life and function of the church. Similarly, there are a whole host of names by which God is known, and each name highlights some aspect of His many perfections.
 

1Way

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Rolf,
But God is part of any reference to God no matter what name of God you use.

We are not a part of the other group, scripture plainly says we are not a part of the bond woman (those who are of the law, the circumcision) and that Abraham was the father of both groups that are never equated, although during this dispensation, the differences don't matter except that all saved in this dispensation have no choice but to be in the uncircumcision group. You seem to want to equate things that God kept near and dear, yet separate and different, but I don't know why you do that. :cool:
 

1Way

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Godrulz,
You said
... (1)National Israel is not the same thing as the invisible Church. The Old Covenant is different than the New Covenant. (2) The third category of Old Testament Jews, NT uncircumcision believers and NT circumcision believers for a short period in Church history is not explicit in Scripture ((3) i.e. not 2 gospels to 2 groups of Christians... (4)obviously those with a Jewish background would understand the foundation of Christianity better than the pagan Gentiles). ...
(1) (Tangent issue number 1) You probably believe the invisible church is the same one that extends both beyond and after our current dispensation. I agree that there is a difference between the church that man sees and the church that God honors, but that is beside the point. Our group is not to be mixed with the other group, this is not about the visible verses the invisible church.

(2) (Tangent issue number 2) I don't know why you invented a third group. You might explain if you feel it will help matters. I believe that the circumcision makes no distinction between the testaments in the bible. Shucks, even the bible forgot that make that distinction.

(3) (Tangent issue number 3) You are really trying to be argumentative here. I only brought up the differences between the two different groups that God keeps different in the scriptures, and you go off on a two different gospels tangent. Naughty naughty.

(4) (Tangent issue number 4) Man's view or God's view
Talk about being consistent! You are unyieldingly set on honoring the ideas of man when speaking about God's teachings! I think it would drive you nuts if you were secluded from mankind for a while and was left with the bible instead. :idea: Say, Godrulz, you ever been on a tour of the secluded mountains of Tibet? I hear they have great vacation deals there, lots of peace and quite, don't forget to bring something spiritually enlightening to read with you!!!

God is quite clear that you should rely on Him first and foremost, and that actually, Israel as a people is about the last place you would expect to faithfully represent God correctly. In the NT, we find that they have been given supernatural blindness for a time. But maybe since you seem to have such a keen appreciation and constant focus on that which is manmade, you might have a pair of "invisible-church" goggles and as such would single out only the righteous Jewish versions of "what to believe". Or maybe you are suggesting that such goggles existed back then when both groups were coexisting in two different dispensations. No? :eek:

Bible examples
Peter admitted that he found it difficult to understand some of Paul's teachings, but Paul understood the teachings of both the circumcision and the uncircumcision. And this was not because Paul was a consummate Jew, Paul counted his knowledge of Jewish background and training as loss when compared to the gain of knowing Christ. So God says, forget lifting up Jewish tradition if you want to know God, that may hinder you, instead learn of God about God. Although, what seems right in man's eyes is "the" source for all false doctrine, on the other hand, God's word better known as "the bible" is truly sufficient and profitable for all matters of faith and right living!!! God is true, really, trust in God AND HIS WORD!

God through Paul explained the faith for those in this dispensation using little Jewish background and of special note, said that the teachings for this dispensation was not previously revealed, but NOW was given to Paul to give to us. Don't mix the circumcision with the uncircumcision, we are not part of the other group!
Galatians 4:22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons: the one by a bondwoman, the other by a freewoman.
23 But he who was of the bondwoman was born according to the flesh, and he of the freewoman through promise,
24 which things are symbolic. For these are the two covenants: the one from Mount Sinai which gives birth to bondage, which is Hagar——
25 for this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia, and corresponds to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children——
26 but the Jerusalem above is free, which is the mother of us all.
27 For it is written: "Rejoice, O barren, You who do not bear! Break forth and shout, You who are not in labor! For the desolate has many more children Than she who has a husband."
28 Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are children of promise.
29 But, as he who was born according to the flesh then persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, even so it is now.
30 Nevertheless what does the Scripture say? "Cast out the bondwoman and her son, for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman."
31 So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman but of the free.
1 Corinthians 7:17 But as God has distributed to each one, as the Lord has called each one, so let him walk. And so I ordain in all the churches.
18 Was anyone called while circumcised? Let him not become uncircumcised. Was anyone called while uncircumcised? Let him not be circumcised.
19 Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing, but keeping the commandments of God is what matters.
20 Let each one remain in the same calling in which he was called.
The calling of God is irrevocable, you do not have the authority or permission to join the wrong group. Nor should you teach that there is not two different groups that God almost constantly calls our attention to in Paul's uncircumcision writings.
 
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godrulz

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Mid-Acts proof text Gal. 2:7? ("The Plot" key verse)

"On the contrary, they saw that I had been given the task of preaching THE GOSPEL to the GENTILES (uncircumcises), just as Peter haad been given the task of preaching (the same-rulz) THE GOSPEL to the JEWS (circumcised)."

2:9 "They agreed that we should go to the Gentiles, and they to the Jews".

(one Gospel of the death and resurrection of Christ to two different ethnic and religious groups; this is like 1way preaching to truckers and myself preaching the same gospel to paramedics; there were controversies and concessions in regard to their previous background without compromising the core message of the cross e.g. Gentiles did not have to be circumcised, but who did Paul circumcise to avoid him being a stumbling block, though circumcision does not save? Was it Timothy? I cannot remember).


i) two gospels to two NT groups of believers? (not just Judaism vs Christianity, but Judaism, circumcised believers in Christ and uncircumcised believers in Christ= 2 different 'gospel' messages with 3 groups, including OT saints). ??

ii) one Gospel to two different groups of believers (one group had Jewish background, while the other group had Gentile background= ONE gospel to two different target audiences...in addition to the Old Covenant)? Check.
 

Clete

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godrulz,

Why Paul?

That's the question you have to answer.

Why Paul?


What was wrong with Peter, James, John, Matthias, etc.?
Where their legs broken, or what? Did Jesus not give to them the great commission? Where is the need for Paul when you have the twelve? Was the Holy Spirit which had been given to the twelve (all twelve by the way) incapable of accomplishing the task with twelve but needed 13 instead?

Why Paul?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

godrulz

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Galatians 1 Paul was sovereignly called by God to take the Gospel of Jesus Christ beyond the Jews (they rejected the Messiah) to the Gentiles. The original intent was that the whole world would be blessed through Israel and the Messiah. It was not meant to be salvation for Jews only. Gal. 1:16 Paul's unique ministry was to the Gentiles. Read the book of Acts about his conversion, calling, and ministry. The Spirit chose Paul due to many factors in his background. He had Roman citizenship, so he could freely travel among Gentiles. He knew languages, cultures, Judaism, etc.

F.F. Bruce wrote "Paul: Apostle of the Heart Set Free." Eerdmans 1977

Based on 50 years of credible study, this book will answer your question and more. It also explores Paul's teachings. If you do a similar study with John, Peter, James, etc. you will see that they preached the same Gospel as Paul after the resurrection. They were sent to the Jews. They could have went to the Gentiles primarily (Paul also witnessed to Jews, but primarily to Gentiles...the Gospel is universal, not exclusive), but that was not the strategy of the Spirit.

The master scholar Bruce (Calvinist, so we will disagree with some of his theology that is not based on historical studies) will not develop Mid-Acts, because the evidence does not explicitly point to this. There is a more straightforward way to understand Scripture, Acts, and the spreading of the Gospel after the resurrection. The New Covenant is not the Old Covenant. There was a transition period, but this does not mean there were two different gospels for a brief time (other than Old and New Covenant).
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

godrulz,

Why Paul?

That's the question you have to answer.

Why Paul?


What was wrong with Peter, James, John, Matthias, etc.?
Where their legs broken, or what? Did Jesus not give to them the great commission? Where is the need for Paul when you have the twelve? Was the Holy Spirit which had been given to the twelve (all twelve by the way) incapable of accomplishing the task with twelve but needed 13 instead?

Why Paul?

Resting in Him,
Clete

or better yet "why wait for Paul?"

why would God wait so long until converting Paul? almost like he was waiting for something......
 

godrulz

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Gal. 4:4 "When the time had fully come..."

God's timing for the Messiah and the release of Paul into ministry was based on the opportune time.

Gal. 2:1 14 years of preparation and testing and growth before released into his impactful ministry...

Great leaders need time to grow in knowledge, leadership, character, service, etc. If leaders are sent out too soon they fall and fail or are not as fruitful as if they would have been prepared in heart and head.

Paul's conversion was not against his will. Unless you subscribe to TULIP (Calvinism), we are converted when we respond to Him in repentant faith. If TULIP is true, why do so many resist the Gospel over and over before they come to Christ? Why does God not save the so-called elect on the first try? Paul was being influenced, drawn, convicted over time. When he ceased his rebellion, the Spirit broke through. His conversion was unique, but it was not ultimately coerced against his will. God gave him special revelation, but he still had to receive it.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by godrulz
God gave him [Paul] special revelation, but he still had to receive it.

You aren't adressing the question.

Why was it necessary for God (Jesus personally) to convert Paul and give him a special revelation if what he was teaching was the same as what the twelve were preaching? One would think that if Paul was the man God had needed that Jesus would have called him to be one of the twelve in the first place.
Further, why does Paul repeatedly call it "his gospel"? The twelve never said anything like that. Paul also told us to "follow him as he followed Christ". Again, the twelve would never have said anything like that.
And why didn't Peter get it if Paul was teaching the same thing as he was? Paul confronted Peter to his face at one point, calling him a hypocrite. And Peter said that Paul taught some things "which are hard to understand". How is that possible if they were teaching the same thing? How?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

godrulz

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Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

You aren't adressing the question.

Why was it necessary for God (Jesus personally) to convert Paul and give him a special revelation if what he was teaching was the same as what the twelve were preaching? One would think that if Paul was the man God had needed that Jesus would have called him to be one of the twelve in the first place.
Further, why does Paul repeatedly call it "his gospel"? The twelve never said anything like that. Paul also told us to "follow him as he followed Christ". Again, the twelve would never have said anything like that.
And why didn't Peter get it if Paul was teaching the same thing as he was? Paul confronted Peter to his face at one point, calling him a hypocrite. And Peter said that Paul taught some things "which are hard to understand". How is that possible if they were teaching the same thing? How?

Resting in Him,
Clete

Good observations. The 12 were with Christ before his resurrection. They did preach the gospel of repentance and the kingdom. They called people to follow Christ. After the resurrection, there was a transition. Paul developed his understanding of the Gospel of Jesus crucified, risen from the dead. There was a transition period from the Old to the New Covenant (John the Baptist was technically Old covenant). The 12 got up to speed and eventually preached what Paul did, to Jew and Gentile.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by godrulz

Good observations. The 12 were with Christ before his resurrection. They did preach the gospel of repentance and the kingdom. They called people to follow Christ. After the resurrection, there was a transition. Paul developed his understanding of the Gospel of Jesus crucified, risen from the dead. There was a transition period from the Old to the New Covenant (John the Baptist was technically Old covenant). The 12 got up to speed and eventually preached what Paul did, to Jew and Gentile.

Okay, assuming that all of this is true, which I don't think it is, but leaving that aside for now, let's just assume that you are right and proceed from there.

With that firmly in view, the question is WHY?
Why did the twelve have to get "up to speed"? How can that even make any sense at all? Were they not indwelt with the Holy Spirit? Couldn't God have given them the same revelation He gave to Paul? And once again, why Paul in the first place. Why didn't God just tell the 12 that things were going to be different than they expected and that they should proceed to preach to the gentiles? Again, I ask you, WHY PAUL?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

godrulz

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I have not thought these things through systematically and chronologically for many years. I am open as you should also be to the evidence. Preconceived ideas must be guarded against. We agree that there had to be a transition period from Mt. Sinai, to John the Baptist, to the ministry of Jesus, to the early church, to the shift from Jew to Gentile. Romans 9-11 and Acts are relevant. Initially, the 12 preached the King (Jn. 3) and the kingdom to the Jews. This was before the resurrection. It was a shift from the Old Covenant shadow and type. In all scenarios, men were saved by faith in God and His provision. The OT looked forward by faith to the Messiah. The NT looks back on the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world. Paul is clear that salvation has always been by faith, not works (Romans 1; Galatians). This was true for the circumcision and the uncircumcision. After the resurrection, Israel by and large rejected the King. The message of repentance and the Kingdom was put aside since they rejected the King-Messiah. Now the 12 preached Christ and Him crucified. The Kingdom was postponed until the end times. Peter preached the risen Christ in Acts 2,3,4, (Stephen Acts 7) before the supposed change under Paul in Acts 9 dispensationalism (we agree there are different dispensations, but may disagree as to what and when they occur). Though they may have retained some old ideas during the transition, there message was essentially what Paul preached (James does not contradict Romans when interpreted properly, even without Mid-Acts support). There is only ONE Gospel to the Jew and Gentile after the resurrection. Paul was an apostle primarily to the Gentiles, while Peter was an apostle primarily to the Jews (Gal. 2:8). This does not mean they had two different gospels while they ministered as contemporaries. Paul taught and preached it with the most clarity as God revealed greater truth progressively. The early church wrestled with the shift from Jew to Gentile and its implications as they shared the one gospel with 2 different target audiences (Gal. 2:7). There was some concession initially as they grew to realize there is neither Jew nor Gentile, but are all one in Christ. This was true in Acts 2, not just in Acts 9.

I am open to further understanding and have not seen this as a big issue. I am surprised that I never heard of Mid-Acts for a 1/4 century. I am familiar with many cultic and Christian variations. It just does not seem to be on the radar as a prominent view. This does not mean it is false (cf. Open Theism), but I honestly would not intuitively come up with it reading and exegeting the NT. I would need "The Plot" glasses on. The fact that it relegates much of the NT (including the teachings of Jesus) to the circumcision only seems suspect. The NT writers wrote with different emhasis and audiences in mind, but they all preached the same gospel early after the resurrection and the forming of the Church (Acts 2). There was refinement over time, but I think 'two gospels' is an artificial construct that is more deductive/eisegesis than inductive/exegesis. Regardless, what I call transition, and what you call Mid-Acts is a comparitively short time period. For us, what is important is that we preach and live the gospel once for all entrusted to the saints (Jude).

See previous posts on Paul. The calling of the 12, Paul, Timothy, William Carey, Wesley/Whitefield, etc. is the right of the Lord of the harvest. He calls, prepares, tests, equips leaders to shake generations. The same could be asked about Martin Luther, John Wesley, etc. Paul was uniquely qualified and called for such a time as this...to take the Gospel to the Gentiles, in addition to those Jews who would come to the Messiah. There is a difference between God's global strategy over time for peoples and nations and His heart for the individual. This was seen in the OT as well as the NT. Whosoever will may come, even while He deals with Israel differently at different times in history.
 
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Yorzhik

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Just a tangent.

I have asked some Doctoral candidates who read and teach Greek about the translation GR used: "THE GOSPEL to the GENTILES (uncircumcises)" and "THE GOSPEL to the JEWS (circumcised)"

They simply cannot see how one can use "to" there. There is no reason they can see not to use "of".
 

godrulz

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Originally posted by Yorzhik

Just a tangent.

I have asked some Doctoral candidates who read and teach Greek about the translation GR used: "THE GOSPEL to the GENTILES (uncircumcises)" and "THE GOSPEL to the JEWS (circumcised)"

They simply cannot see how one can use "to" there. There is no reason they can see not to use "of".

I will recheck the interlinear. I used NIV, but think it coincides with interlinear. I would put emphasis on the one and same Gospel, rather than the preposition of/to. Even with 'of', I would still see the one Gospel message going to the Gentiles (of or to the Gentiles/Jews implies it is for their ears; cf. the Gospel of Indians and the Gospel of or to Africans). What is the correct translation? Sometimes prepositions have different meanings depending on the context or grammar of the sentence (dative, accusative, genitive, etc.). Then we can determine what is the correct interpretation. It may not be obvious. Let's dig deeper...the truth is out there...regardless, let's not proof text either way.

Here's a start (Net Bible)

http://www.bible.org/netbible2/index.php?book=gal&chapter=2&verse=7&submit=Lookup+Verse


Other translations:

http://www.greeknewtestament.com/index2.htm

http://bible.cc/galatians/2-7.htm
 
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Rolf Ernst

New member
Those who are of the law are NEITHER the body of Christ, NOR His bride. There is no reason to bring a discussion of law versus grace into a discussion of the body of Christ and the bride of Christ.

Abraham--and other Old Testament saints--were, by God's grace, justified through faith just as are New Testament saints; the only difference between them and us being that they, through faith, looked forward to Christ and what He would do, while we now look back to what He has done.

God's people of both the Old Testament and the New Testament periods were chosen--individually chosen--in Christ before the foundation of the world and both justified by faith.

The law was given as a covenant to show God's people the futility of striving to attain God's favor through the law. The Old Testament period was one in which God's people were given foreshadows/types of Christ's person and work. It was through these that God led His people of the Old Testament to faith in Christ.

If anyone doubts the sufficient effectiveness of these to bring His people to faith, I can point out some things in the Old Testament that explain doctrinal truths that many in today's church have not yet come to understand--especially concerning covenant (i.e.,testament) truths.
 

godrulz

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Originally posted by Rolf Ernst


If anyone doubts the sufficient effectiveness of these to bring His people to faith, I can point out some things in the Old Testament that explain doctrinal truths that many in today's church have not yet come to understand--especially concerning covenant (i.e.,testament) truths.

Are we talking about TULIP, Reformed Covenantal, or decreetal theology? We are all ears:cool: Is this diametrically opposed to free will theism (Arminian; Open)?
 

Clete

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Originally posted by godrulz

I have not thought these things through systematically and chronologically for many years. I am open as you should also be to the evidence.
Well that's what I thought I was presenting. The fact the Paul was given a special revelation and did not confer with the twelve before starting his ministry, along with the fact that Peter didn't get it (at least not right away) and that he (Peter) thought that what Paul was teaching was in part "difficult to understand", and the fact that you along with everyone else I've ever asked before are at a loss to explain why Peter, James, or John could not have done what Paul did if indeed their messages were all the same, is all evidence that there are gaping holes in your logic that leads you to conclude that Paul was teaching the same message as the twelve.
The simple fact is that if Paul was teaching the same message as the twelve then he was unnecessary and much of the New Testament is inexplicable and contradictory.
Further, the fact that I can read both Romans and James and take them both totally at face value is further evidence that Acts 9 Dispensationalism is correct. I don't have to even try to make James say the same thing because he isn't saying the same thing. He's saying the absolute opposite in fact. But James was teaching law to those under the law and so there is no conflict. I don't see why this should be any big deal really. All I am talking about is context. Context includes not only the subject matter of the book and chapter that a verse is in but also the author's audience and which dispensation that audience was saved under.
You and I are in agreement that all are saved by the grace of God through faith. However, in the previous dispensation, observance of the law was not optional, it was absolutely required. If one refused to obey the law, they would be cut off. Moses did not come down from Mount Sinai with two tablets of grace; he came with the law which anyone who wanted to be in relationship with God had to obey. If you wanted to have a relationship with God, the only way to do that was to become circumcised and follow the Mosaic Law. You had to become a proselyte Jew.
God's plan was to purge Israel through tribulation and then return and set up a kingdom by which the whole world would come to repentance. That was the plan from the beginning, and in Acts chapter 2 that plan was still in full swing. Pentecost was the next event in God's prophesied plan after the resurrection and ascension of the Messiah. Peter himself said as much in the sermon he preached in Acts chapter 2. He also preached that his listeners (the nation of Israel) should repent so that God would send Jesus back and establish their kingdom.
It wasn't until a year or so later with the stoning of Steven that God changed things. Everything preached up to that point was wholly consistent with Mosaic covenant of law. Which was preached by Jesus, John the Baptist and every other prophet of God since Moses brought the ten commandments down off the mountain.
Nothing changed at all (look it up since you want to see evidence), until Paul was converted in Acts 9. Paul was the first who was saved by grace plus nothing. His message is entirely different than that of Peter, James and John. Paul says do not follow the law whereas James says that all his followers are zealous for the law. Paul says the God saved those who DO NOT WORK but believe. James says that a man is JUSTIFIED BY WORKS.
No, I do not think that it can be denied that Paul was indeed preaching something quite different. This explains the existence of his ministry, this explains the confusion on the part of the twelve (Peter in particular), this explains the seemingly contradictory nature of the texts, ect, ect.
How much more evidence do you want? This ought to be plenty but there is more. Act 9 Dispensationalism also has the effect of resolving countless doctrinal debates that rage in today's churches. Should we follow the Sabbath or not? Should we water baptize or not? Should we tithe or not? Can you lose your salvation or not? Etc.
All of these debates and more are easily resolved while leaving the plain meaning of the text in tact without having countless problem texts. No other systematic theology can make such a claim. None. I can read the Bible, take it for what it seems to be saying, understand what it is saying, and have no problem texts that make my eyes glaze over before I've finished reading a single page. I don't know what better argument can be made!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

aharvey

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

Paul was the first who was saved by grace plus nothing.
I'm curious. How do you know Paul was "saved"? How do you know he was saved "by grace plus nothing," and that he was the first so saved? I remember when Christopher Reeves died, someone at TOL asked something to the effect of "I'm almost afraid to ask, but does anyone here know if he was saved?" How is this arguably most personal of interactions between God and one person recognized by another person?
 
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