ARGH!!! Calvinism makes me furious!!!

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

The major premise, that God exist, as well as several others must be presupposed.

The Impossibility of Atheism

Read the above linked thread and you'll understand why.

Resting in Him,
Clete
How do you draw conclusions of what is being said in Scripture from outside sources? That would indoubtedly lead to a 'twisted' world-view theology. It would definitly NOT be Scripturally sound.

Like Godrulz says, we must study the Bible inductively because that means we study it's texts for evidence to make certain conclusions. If you study the Bible deductively and already came to conclusions WITHOUT using Scripture as the source, but rather as a way to back up your conclusions, then Scripture can mean whatever you want it to mean.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Z Man

How do you draw conclusions of what is being said in Scripture from outside sources? That would indoubtedly lead to a 'twisted' world-view theology. It would definitly NOT be Scripturally sound.

Like Godrulz says, we must study the Bible inductively because that means we study it's texts for evidence to make certain conclusions. If you study the Bible deductively and already came to conclusions WITHOUT using Scripture as the source, but rather as a way to back up your conclusions, then Scripture can mean whatever you want it to mean.
How do you know the Bible is true Z Man?
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by Z Man

How do you draw conclusions of what is being said in Scripture from outside sources? That would indoubtedly lead to a 'twisted' world-view theology. It would definitly NOT be Scripturally sound.

Like Godrulz says, we must study the Bible inductively because that means we study it's texts for evidence to make certain conclusions. If you study the Bible deductively and already came to conclusions WITHOUT using Scripture as the source, but rather as a way to back up your conclusions, then Scripture can mean whatever you want it to mean.

We all must guard against bias and preconceived ideas. We have all been influenced by someone or something. The challenge is to pull the meaning out of Scripture (exegesis) and not read our ideas back into Scripture (eisegesis). It is not easy to take off our blinders and glasses to have the Spirit illuminate the revelation to us. Systematic theology is prone to proof texting (deductive bent). Biblical theology studies books and context and grammar closer and is more inductive.

What did the text mean to the original audience in its culture and language? There is only one correct interpretation.

What does it mean to us by way of application in our culture? There can be more than one principle or application.

We must also formulate doctrine. It should be based on Scripture alone, but historical influences (Augustine, Greek, etc.) have led to traditions and beliefs that are extra/contrabiblical (cf. Catholicism).
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

How do you know the Bible is true Z Man?

Good question. Atheists think it is circular reason/begging the question to assume it is the Word of God and true, because it says it is.

The formation of the Bible, internal and external evidences, the unity of the Bible, etc. are part of the answer.

Z?
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
Originally posted by Z Man

Ok, maybe Jeremiah 1:5 is not DIRECTLY meant for you, personally, in that it does not mention your name. But it does establish very important theological points that work for me, but against your beliefs:

that was what i was getting at, it may be written for us (has truth in it that we can benefit from) but it was not written to us (is not where we get our doctrine from).

Jeremiah 1:5
"Before I formed you in the womb I knew you; Before you were born I sanctified you; I ordained you a prophet to the nations."

Before Jeremiah walked the face of the earth and done any sort of action, whether it be good or evil, God ordained/predestined that he would be a prophet for Him. God sanctified him before he was born! God also states that He knew Jeremiah, before He even 'formed him in the womb'. Essentially this tells us that:
  • 1) The future does exist


  • no, it does not tell us the future exists. please show me directly which part you think tells us that the future exists.

    2) God predestines/ordains without regard to any evil or good that may have been done (in other words, its not our will, but His that chooses)

i completely agree, but you cannot turn this into a doctrinal statement that God predestines all things this way or that he even predestines all things. all it says is that in this specific case God predestined jeremiah to be a prophet without regard to any good or evil.

What a cowardly way to stand down in the face of Scriptural scrutiny; declare ignorance. Figures...

it was an honest statement.

No, it actually doesn't.

First, you falsly assume that there was nothing EXCEPT God before the foundation of the world. Can you prove that?

nope, but how about we go back before all of it, before anything was created when there was just God. had he ordained all things at that point?

Next, you make such an elaborate explanation as to the 'loneliness' of God before the foundation of the world

loneliness? where did i speak of this?

that somehow leads to Him being the only one responsible for anything that goes on today, since He predestined it back then. I still don't see how you can make such a huge leap from God predestining before the 'foundation of the world' to you not being responsible for your actions.

if the statement "i will plan to conquer the world" is true when only God is around and in existence, then he must be the one making it true right?

Next, you falsly assume that God is intertwined with time. The world in which we live may be in 'time', but God certainly isn't bound by it.

i believe the future is open, you believe it is settled. i believe scripture states the future is open, you do not. but this is not the thread for debating this. feel free to open a new one if you want to discuss that however.

There wasn't a point in time that God suddenly came up with the idea to 'predestine' future events.

so he knew them from eternity past? if so, please respond to my point earlier.

When we use the word 'predestination', it's just an expression - a word - that we use to comprehend the Sovereignty of God's thoughts and motives - His will, if you may. His ways for what shall be took precedent above ours way before we were ever created.

you need to clarify what you mean by predestine then if it's not the common use of the word.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
Clete--you say in post #1465 that you have refuted the FACT that God's gifts are sovereignly alloted to whomever He pleases--well, friend. You only THINK you have refuted that well established fact.

If you want to "refute" that in my presence, pay the price and take your chances, as they say. You have my attention with that claim, and I WILL take time to respond. What was it Clint Eastwood said?

"feeling lucky??"
 

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by God_Is_Truth

no, it does not tell us the future exists. please show me directly which part you think tells us that the future exists.
The whole verse proves this! The fact that God knew Jeremiah BEFORE he was born; the fact that God had already established Jeremiah as a prophet BEFORE he was born. Because the future does exist, and God is in the future, then He can declare such a statement as 'before you were born I sanctified you; I ordained you a prophet to the nations'. If the future did not exist, the best God could say was 'I hope you become a prophet when the time comes'. And there is no way He can state that He knew Jeremiah before he was born, since Jeremiah's birth is in the future which doesn't exist, meaning Jeremiah cannot exist before he was born.

But God tells us otherwise...
i completely agree, but you cannot turn this into a doctrinal statement that God predestines all things this way or that he even predestines all things. all it says is that in this specific case God predestined jeremiah to be a prophet without regard to any good or evil.
I'm not trying to prove with this ONE verse that God predestines all things; but through inductive Biblical study, I have come to find that this isn't the only instance in which God has forordained something. So, inductively speaking, I have come to conclude, as any rational person who has studied the Bible long enough, that if God predestine this, and that, several times in the Bible, He must ALWAYS do that. I have yet come across Scripture that states God DID NOT ordain a certain thing, or was caught off guard by something.

Too much Scriptural evidence points to Him predestining than is to be ignored...
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Rolf Ernst

Clete--you say in post #1465 that you have refuted the FACT that God's gifts are sovereignly alloted to whomever He pleases--well, friend. You only THINK you have refuted that well established fact.

If you want to "refute" that in my presence, pay the price and take your chances, as they say. You have my attention with that claim, and I WILL take time to respond. What was it Clint Eastwood said?

"feeling lucky??"

Where would you like me to start? Give me something specific.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
Clete--Point #3 in my post #1464 and your response to it, saying that you had refuted it many times is what began this discusstion, so lets begin there. Show me scriptural refutation of that general statement. Pick any phrase out of point #3 that you claim is unscriptural and show why it is contrary to scripture.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by Z Man

Faith.

Faith that is based on knowledge and evidence, not presumptuous fairy tales. Mormons believe the BOM by faith and also claim evidence for it. They are misguided. Faith is only as valid as the truth/object one trusts in.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Originally posted by Z Man

The whole verse proves this! The fact that God knew Jeremiah BEFORE he was born; the fact that God had already established Jeremiah as a prophet BEFORE he was born. Because the future does exist, and God is in the future, then He can declare such a statement as 'before you were born I sanctified you; I ordained you a prophet to the nations'. If the future did not exist, the best God could say was 'I hope you become a prophet when the time comes'. And there is no way He can state that He knew Jeremiah before he was born, since Jeremiah's birth is in the future which doesn't exist, meaning Jeremiah cannot exist before he was born.

But God tells us otherwise...

I'm not trying to prove with this ONE verse that God predestines all things; but through inductive Biblical study, I have come to find that this isn't the only instance in which God has forordained something. So, inductively speaking, I have come to conclude, as any rational person who has studied the Bible long enough, that if God predestine this, and that, several times in the Bible, He must ALWAYS do that. I have yet come across Scripture that states God DID NOT ordain a certain thing, or was caught off guard by something.

Too much Scriptural evidence points to Him predestining than is to be ignored...

The issue is resolved by recognizing that there are 2 motifs in Scripture with different sets of 'proof texts' that do not contradict each other. Some of the future is predestined and settled; some of the future is contingent and open:

http://www.gregboyd.org/gbfront/index.asp?PageID=494

See the verses for each motif.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
Perspective, perspective--

From man's view, all things are open; not because they actually are, but because knowledge of the future has been hidden from men. Apart from knowing the sovereign God, men view things not with respect to Him, but with respect to themselves. This is a form of unbelief, a refusal to cast oneself upon Him whose rule over all results in His providential absolutes.

That is unacceptable to men of unbelief. When asked who determines, their supposed superiority over God is exposed by their answer that God must wait upon THEIR action. Rather than being active, they think God must be reactive. His will must be suspended, so their will is unhindered.

From God's view--reality--all things are settled: "known unto God are are His works from the beginning of the world." "Who is he that saith and it cometh to pass when the LORD commandeth it not?"
"Whatsoever the LORD pleased that did He in heaven and in earth; in the sea and all deep places." "He does according to His will in the army of heaven and among the inhabitants of the earth and no one can say unto Him, 'what are you doing?' "

Yet, vain men of unbelief persist in believing that God, who is from everlasting to everlasting must wait upon them, creatures whose days pass away like a morning cloud. WHAT ARROGANCE AND VANITY!! They actually believe that they, creatures of a moment, ultimately determine the course of the world over which He, the everlasting God, is the governor. Like satan, man believes that he, not God, reigns. When the question of God's will versus man's will is raised they arrogantly assign the superiority to themselves, thinking God's will must hinge upon their's or else THEIR rights are denied.

THAT idea is straight out of hell's deepest pit!
 
Last edited:

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

This is not an answer (not a complete one anyway), faith in what?
I thought maybe you could put two and two together...

Faith in that what the Scriptures tell us is true - all of it.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
God is sovereign in applying His gifts of grace--both covenanted grace and common grace; meaning that grace is a GIFT of God and no man has a RIGHT to any of His gifts. NOR DO THEY HAVE ANY ACCESS TO THEM BY THEIR OWN POWER. THEY ARE GIVEN--APPLIED-- BY GOD. All rights pertaining to His GIFTS belong only to Him. Therefore men have no right to complain against Him for leaving them to the wickedness of their own nature.

As I said the last time I responded to this, if not for the meaning you pour into the words this statement is rather accurate. This makes it somewhat difficult to respond to directly because doing so will make it seem as though I am saying something I am not if one does not pay careful attention. So in order to avoid misunderstanding I will go slow and simply give an explanation of what I would mean if I were to make such a statement and then you can tell why I am wrong (if you think I am) and we'll go from there.

God is sovereign in applying His gifts of grace
God is sovereign, period. But the Calvinist removes the normal meaning of the word sovereign and replaces it with something completely different. To the Calvinist the word means control, absolute sovereignty means absolute control. The problem is that this is not only unbiblical, but it bares no resemblance to what the word sovereign actually means.
Sovereignty has to do with authority, not control. The king of a nation is the sovereign ruler of that nation; he is the nation's highest authority. If a man violates a command of the king, that does not change the fact that the king is the sovereign of that nation. Likewise, God is the sovereign of all that exists. If I do something against His will, that does not elevate me to the position of sovereign, nor does it demote God.
The reason this is so is because the only reason I am able to violate His will is because He has delegated to me the authority to live my life the why I want to. And since He has the power and the absolute right to recall that authority at any time, He remains sovereign. The only way God could ever become something other than sovereign is if any enemy of His could ever overcome His power, which is, of course, impossible. Thus God is and always will be the absolute sovereign ruler of all that is.

--both covenanted grace and common grace;
You will have to clarify what you mean by the terms "covenanted grace" and "common grace" before I could give a meaningful response. I suspect that one or the other contradicts foundational Calvinist beliefs and/or each other.

...meaning that grace is a GIFT of God and no man has a RIGHT to any of His gifts.
Of course. That's what makes them gifts.

NOR DO THEY HAVE ANY ACCESS TO THEM BY THEIR OWN POWER. THEY ARE GIVEN--APPLIED-- BY GOD.
Which is it, given or applied?
Either I suppose will do but I prefer "given".
God, because He loves us and desires for us to love Him, sovereignly decided that He would provide a way so that we don't have to endure that which we deserve. He decided what the plan of salvation would be, He decided under what conditions His grace would be offered and under what conditions His grace would be applied. I didn't ever go to God and demand that He save me. I never went to Him, nor did any man, and say this is how you will provide a way of salvation and these are the conditions under which you will find people acceptable. It was all Him. I do not deserve to be saved, but will be nonetheless because, and only because, I chose to exercise the authority which God gave me over my own mind and heart, and humbled myself, and accepted His freely offered gift of salvation. If I had accepted His gift because He had sovereignly declared that I would do so, then it would no longer have meaning. It wouldn't be a gift in the first place because gifts are given not forced and I would not be able to honestly say that I had humbled myself and followed Him but rather that God drug me along behind Him in spite of myself. (This happens to be something I've actually heard Calvinists come right out and say that they believe!)

All rights pertaining to His GIFTS belong only to Him. Therefore men have no right to complain against Him for leaving them to the wickedness of their own nature.
I agree with this statement completely, as it is written. The problem is that you believe that the only reason they are wicked in the first place is because God predestined that they would be. You say, along with Z Man, that they chose to be evil and are therefore responsible for their own wickedness but then in the very next breath you admit that their choices to be evil were just as predestined as were their evil natures.
The only way this statement can coexist with the idea that God is just, is if the men left to their own wickedness had true libertarian free will. If they, by their own volition, chose to be evil and reject God's offer of rescue then God has and will allow evil people to be evil. He will not force anyone to love Him because He cannot do so. (Which, by the way, is the whole point.)

The Calvinist idea of God's sovereignty can be killed with one single word and with it the entire Calvinist theological construct. That word is the single most important word in all of creation as well as the rest of existence. It is the word upon which everything Christian rests; without which, life itself becomes utterly meaningless. That word is, of course…

[Jesus]LOVE[/Jesus]​

Love is the key issue because love, by definition, must be volitional. Without freedom, love cannot exist. Thus without an ability to do, or to do otherwise I cannot love anyone including God. Therefore, the Calvinist idea of God's sovereignty (total control of every single event including every thought and emotion) simply cannot be true. To say otherwise is to deny the existence of love, which is to deny God Himself, for "God is love". God simply cannot have given His creation the ability to love Him without taking the risk that they would hate Him. Thus is the nature of love.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Z Man

I thought maybe you could put two and two together...

Faith in that what the Scriptures tell us is true - all of it.

How do you know what faith is?

Let me answer my own question for you...

Your understanding of faith comes from the Bible, thus using faith in such a way is presuming the answer to the original question (How do you know the Bible is true?) That's a logical falacy known as question begging and is proof that your position is logically incoherent.

We can continue this all day for the rest of our lives if you wish or you can simply concede the fact that you are stuck. If the existence of God is not your starting point you cannot know anything. You will forever find youself in the same sort of question begging falacy of logic.

Allow me to quote something from Battle Royale VII that makes the point most clearly. It's a good amount to read but it is well worth it, trust me.

Originally posted by Bob Enyart...
Transcendental Proof for God

As soon as the atheist says he wants to resolve this Battle Royale in a rational way, he has lost. Here’s why:

God exists because of the impossibility of the alternative. Unbelievers require theists to provide evidence for God which is not circular, which does not beg the question, that is, they insist that we do not assume that which we should try to prove. They claim that faith puts theists at a disadvantage, because we trust in God. Contrariwise, they claim that they reject faith, and constrain themselves to the laws of logic and reason. Atheists claim that only evidence based upon logic and reason is valid. But how do atheists validate that claim? They cannot. For [BA10-9] if atheists attempt to justify “logic and reason” by logic and reason, then they have based their entire godless worldview on circular reasoning; and we find that rational atheism is an impossibility. And if they cannot defend the foundation of their worldview by logic or reason, they leave themselves only with the illogical and irrational, which accounts for arguments actually offered by atheists. To justify logic apart from circular reasoning, you must seek the foundation of logic outside of logic itself. Thus we learn that, apart from belief in God, nothing can be truly knowable. If an honest and consistent atheist could actually exist, he would not claim that atheism is defensible by logic, since logic itself is indefensible by logic apart from circular reasoning. Therefore on the one hand, if the atheist claims to know anything at all, he unwittingly has shown that atheism (the alternative to God) is an impossibility, because apart from God, nothing is knowable, as demonstrated in this paragraph.

On the other hand, as a last ditch attempt to consistently defend atheism, the atheist may claim to be a no-nothing, that is, to know nothing at all, because by atheism, actual knowledge is impossible. Popular atheism is moving in this general direction. When this happens, we theists point out that the pinnacle achievement of atheism is ignorance. As I have said, every observation provides direct evidence for God while atheism struggles to account for anything whatsoever. The honest thinker who wants to work out a systematic atheistic worldview will find that without God, the only things that are possible are nothing and ignorance (the lack of knowledge). Apart from God, nothing can be known or justified, not microevolution nor heliocentricity, not a wit of logic nor even a half-wit. No certainty can exist without Him who is the foundation of truth, and those who love truth, love Him. (Dr. Greg Bahnsen successfully used the transcendental proof for God while debating a leading atheist, Dr. Gordon Stein, at the University of California at Irvine.)

A fundamental difference between God and logic is that logic is a system of thought that attempts to rationally justify ideas, and as an idea itself, logic must somehow be justifiable, or found to be illogical. God is not a system of thought that needs to be justified. He is an actual being. And while the existence of logic apart from God is self-contradictory as just demonstrated in BA10-9, there exists no contradiction in the existence of the rational God whose very mind and thoughts provide the foundation for logic itself. And while we cannot see God, as we cannot see hope or love, the Bible defines “faith” as accepting “the evidence of things not seen” (Hebrews 11:1).

In giving my first eight lines of evidence (except for the epistemological part of [BA10-7]) I assume that atheists often use logic and reason (imitating Christians) even though they cannot logically defend doing so in their own godless worldview. But without a foundation for logic, I also realize that their intellectual discipline allows them to treat all evidence illogically, since they have no ultimate commitment to reason, not even to logic itself, and certainly not to truth or morality. So, in an atheist’s attempt to win a debate, there is nothing inherently inconsistent or wrong with lying, cheating, or quitting in an attempt to spoil the endeavor (which I will not let Zakath do); for there is no ultimate reason for honesty, no absolute commitment to truth, and no foundation for an unwavering determination to be logical. Word games, contradictions, unresponsiveness, slight of hand, obfuscation, misstatements, and ignoring arguments all can be used as consistent with atheism in order to attempt to win the debate, and in actual practice, such deception is the strength of the atheist’s ability to persuade.

Yet surely, God either exists or does not exist. (Ahh, see, there I go again! I said “surely!” I’ve used logic here, which a theist can use with certainty, whereas the atheist cannot absolutely defend even such simple logic.) The atheist worldview is dysfunctional, and they can only operate by borrowing the certainty that is possible with God. By the way, that is an insight we can find in Christ’s statement that, “With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible” (Matthew 19:26), by which He was not claiming that square circles could be drawn, nor defending any irrationality, but that all things knowable or doable, especially evident in the matter of salvation itself, are only possible because of God. In contrast to atheism, my theistic worldview is functional, because I recognize that logic and reason do exist, that they are absolutes, and that they are possible because they flow from the mind of God. Logic exists and can only exist as a consequence of the rational thoughts in the mind of God. God is non-contradictory, truthful, logical, reasonable, and knowledgeable, and there is no other epistemological basis upon which we can absolutely defend truth, logic, reason, and knowledge.

Popular atheism has come to accept that it rejects absolute morality. As mankind corporately continues to think through these matters, given enough time, popular atheism will also come to accept that atheism also rejects absolute truth, logic, reason, math, and science. Again: the pinnacle achievement of atheism is ignorance. We find examples of this in the early rounds of this debate and in the life of Bertrand Russell. Zakath readily talks about morality, and admits that he does not believe in absolute morality (although he recoils from the ramifications), whereas he is more hesitant to talk about truth, and posts 2a to 4b show that his intuition tells him that an atheist should resist defending even the existence of truth. While Zakath consciously acknowledges that atheism disallows absolute morality, only subconsciously does he fear that atheism also disallows truth, logic, and reason. So like most atheists, Zakath has yet to embrace the intellectual, though amoral, ramifications of atheism. Apart from a righteous God, as Immanuel Kant’s Critique of Pure Reason rightly observed, no such thing as absolute morality can exist; and conversely, if Zakath admitted the existence of absolute morality, he would thereby concede the existence of God. What atheists disdain most about God is absolute right and wrong (because they pridefully rebel against His moral constraints, desiring immorality with impunity). So naturally, the atheist community is most ready to admit to the moral consequence of atheism that denies the possibility of ultimate righteousness. But as the intellectual ramifications of atheism continue to work their way into mankind’s corporate thinking, eventually, atheists will lose their hesitancy and admit the same effect regarding logic. Apart from God logic cannot exist, since it is illogical to prove something via circular reasoning, that is, you should not assume (or declare by faith) that which you are claiming to prove, so atheists cannot build a consistent, godless, logical worldview. Notice that it is with foundations and origins that atheists have the greatest difficulty in even attempting to construct a defense, as regarding the origins of the universe, life, consciousness, personality, higher biological functions, and now, even of logic itself. Why is this? Because God is the foundation of all that exists, physical and spiritual, rational and logical. So atheists are stuck beginning with faith in their origins, apart from any evidence, science, logic, reason, or laws which predict or justify their faith in atheist origins, and then by faith they construct arguments for origins which, unlike the theistic origins claims, defy all evidence, science, logic, reason, and law, superficially and fundamentally. So only with a rational God can the laws of logic can truly exist, as can math and the laws of science, and they can be known only because knowledge can exist. Bertrand Russell devoted his long life to providing an atheistic foundation for logic, reason, math, and knowledge, and after many decades, he became increasingly uncertain of almost all knowledge. Again, and again: the pinnacle achievement of atheism is ignorance.

With clarity Los Alamos scientist John Baumgartner reveals an implication of Einstein’s Gulf: “If something as real as linguistic information has existence independent of matter and energy, from causal considerations it is not unreasonable to suspect an entity [like God] capable of originating linguistic information also is ultimately non-material [i.e., spiritual] in its essential nature. An immediate conclusion of these observations concerning linguistic information [the existence of ideas, knowledge, logic, reason, law] is that materialism, which has long been the dominant philosophical perspective in scientific circles, with its foundational presupposition that there is no non-material reality, is simply and plainly false. It is amazing that its falsification is so trivial.”

What gives intelligibility to the world? Only the thoughts in the mind of God can make the cosmos understandable. Nothing but God can demonstrably or even conceivably allow for actual knowledge. The reason Einstein could not identify any way for matter to give meaning to symbols is that there is no way, for the physical laws have no symbolic logic function, and they cannot have any such function because logic is not physical and so is outside of the jurisdiction of physical laws. No physical law can even influence symbolic logic, yet the rules of logic constrain the physical laws, showing Baumgartner’s point that the spiritual takes precedence over the physical!

So try this: go and find an unsuspecting atheist, and ask him two questions. First, Q1: Is atheism logical? Second, Q2: Are the laws of logic absolute or has society only agreed upon them by convention? He will be happier with the first question than with the second. To the first, a typical atheist today will answer, yes! A1: Atheism is logical. (Why that answer? Atheists crave a foundation and so they are still substituting an indefensible, reasonless rationalism for the reasonable God whom they rebel against.) But for the second question, the atheist’s fear of the absolute will cause him to hesitate. If that phobia is strong enough, it could bring him to expose his own rejection of logic itself. A2-1: “No, the laws of logic are not absolute!” as the leading atheist Stein maintained in the above mentioned debate. And if logic is not absolute but rather a consensus of rules which some men have created, then any logical argument for atheism is really just an appeal to authority, an appeal to the authority of those men or those societies which agreed upon the current set of laws. And since atheists reject the source of all authority (God), they especially despise appeals to authority. (When pressing for an answer to Q2, expect some obfuscation, word games, or unresponsiveness.) When it dawns upon them, whether consciously or not, that denying its absolute nature turns logic into an argument from authority, some atheists then hesitate to say that logic is not absolute. But the unbeliever must step out of his own realm of atheism and become inconsistent to answer yes. A2-2: Yes, the laws of logic are absolute. He will then face the immediate follow-up question for which we will not permit him a circular justification: “What validates logic?” What justifies your faith in logic? Atheists tell the theist not to beg the question by using circular arguments. So by his own worldview, we will not allow him to assume (by faith) that which he claims he should be able to prove by logic (remember A1). This atheist finds himself with the same difficulty as his predecessors who tried to defend absolute morality apart from God: it can’t be done. And so, popular atheism has long ago yielded absolute morality to theists. (With even knowledge, logic, and reason falling victim to atheism, not surprisingly, the godless long ago discarded wisdom and righteousness.) Paralleling their loss of absolute morality, apart from God today’s atheist cannot defend the absolute laws of logic either. Regarding A2-1, as with morality, atheism will move toward a consensus against the existence of logic. For eventually, either atheism collapses, or its trust in logic collapses. They will redefine logic to mean just convention, as they have redefined right and wrong. As atheists fall into denial by increasingly rejecting the universality of logic, they will eventually yield logic to theists, just as they did with morality. Such intellectual schizophrenia demonstrates the claim of Christians that atheism is inherently self-contradictory, and more than just morality, atheism also undermines logic. For, rational atheism is easily demonstrated to be impossible [BA10-9], and the transcendental proof for God affirms His existence by the impossibility of the alternative. And so, which worldview is logical, theism or atheism? Once again I will grant that if right and wrong does not exist, and now if logic does not exist, then God does not exist. So if Zakath wanted to resolve this Battle Royale disagreement over God’s existence in a rational way, he has lost, for atheism has no rational basis.


Of course Bob was debating an atheist and I know that you are a believer but that isn't the point. The point is simply that God must be our starting point, not the Bible. You have put God's Word in the place of God Himself and in so doing you have ripped the foundation out from under you own feet!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by godrulz

The issue is resolved by recognizing that there are 2 motifs in Scripture with different sets of 'proof texts' that do not contradict each other. Some of the future is predestined and settled; some of the future is contingent and open:

http://www.gregboyd.org/gbfront/index.asp?PageID=494

See the verses for each motif.
To God, all of the future is settled. If it wasn't, there wouldn't be a Revelations in our Bible. Neither would there be countless passages of Scripture where God proves His diety by determining the future beforehand. Jesus told His disciples what the future held so that they would know He was God (John 16:4).

I think the best argument that proves the future must exist (but surely not the ONLY case in Scriptures) is in Isaiah where God declares, in a challege to idol gods, that His foreknowledge of future events is what proves His diety. God could not make such bold claims of such great knowledge to prove His diety IF the future didn't exist:

  • Isaiah 41:22-23
    Let them bring forth and show us what will happen; Let them show the former things, what they were, That we may consider them, And know the latter end of them; Or declare to us things to come. Show the things that are to come hereafter, That we may know that you are gods; Yes, do good or do evil, That we may be dismayed and see it together.

    Isaiah 42:8-9
    I am the Lord, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images. Behold, the former things have come to pass, And new things I declare; Before they spring forth I tell you of them.

    Isaiah 45:21
    Tell and bring forth your case; Yes, let them take counsel together. Who has declared this from ancient time? Who has told it from that time? Have not I, the Lord? And there is no other God besides Me, A just God and a Savior; There is none besides Me.

    Isaiah 46:9-10
    Remember the former things of old, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like Me, declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things that are not yet done, Saying, 'My counsel shall stand, And I will do all My pleasure,'

If the future does not exist, then God cannot proclaim the future. And, as Jonathan Edwards once said, if God can't foreknow the future, then "in vain has God himself often spoken of the predictions of his Word, as evidences of . . . his peculiar glory, greatly distinguishing him from all other beings."
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
Originally posted by Z Man

The whole verse proves this! The fact that God knew Jeremiah BEFORE he was born; the fact that God had already established Jeremiah as a prophet BEFORE he was born.

well in case you forgot there's this period of 9 months that goes by between conception and birth. i see the phrase "before you were born" referencing this.

Because the future does exist, and God is in the future,

those are two assumptions, both of which i disagree with.

then He can declare such a statement as 'before you were born I sanctified you; I ordained you a prophet to the nations'. If the future did not exist, the best God could say was 'I hope you become a prophet when the time comes'. And there is no way He can state that He knew Jeremiah before he was born, since Jeremiah's birth is in the future which doesn't exist, meaning Jeremiah cannot exist before he was born.

God is declaring that between conception and birth he knew Jeremiah and had ordained him to be a prophet for Israel. there is no necessity for God to be in the future for these things to be true.

I'm not trying to prove with this ONE verse that God predestines all things; but through inductive Biblical study, I have come to find that this isn't the only instance in which God has forordained something.

i agree that it's not the only thing God has foreordained.

So, inductively speaking, I have come to conclude, as any rational person who has studied the Bible long enough, that if God predestine this, and that, several times in the Bible, He must ALWAYS do that.

and that is where you make your mistake. just because God does something several times, it doesn't mean we can establish that all things are this way. on the contrary, there are many verses that suggest he does not.

I have yet come across Scripture that states God DID NOT ordain a certain thing, or was caught off guard by something.

you have much to read then. here are bible verses that support (in one way or another) an open future, i.e. a future not completely predestined.

Gen. 2:19 | Gen. 6:5–6 | Gen. 22:12 | Exod. 3:18–4:9 | Exod. 4:10–16 | Exod. 13:17 | Exod. 16:4 | Exod. 32:14 | Exod. 32:33 | Exod. 33:1–3, 14 | Num. 11:1–2 | Num. 14:11 | Num. 14:12–20 | Num. 16:20–35 | Num. 16:41–48 | Deut. 8:2 | Deut. 9:13–14, 18–20, 25 | Deut. 13:1–3 | Deut. 30:19 | Judg. 2:20–3:5 | Judg. 10:13–15 | 1 Sam. 2:27–31 | 1 Sam. 13:13–14 | 1 Sam. 15:10 | 1 Sam. 15:35 | 1 Sam. 23:9–13 | 2 Sam. 24:12–16 | 2 Sam. 24:17–25 | 1 Kings 21:27–29 | 2 Kings 13:3–5 | 2 Kings 20:1–7 | 1 Chron. 21:7–13 | 1 Chron. 21:15 | 2 Chron. 7:12–14 | 2 Chron. 12:5–8 | 2 Chron. 32:31 | Psalm 106:23 | Isa. 5:3–7 | Isa. 38:1–5 | Jer. 3:6–7 | Jer. 3:19–20 | Jer. 7:5–7 | Jer. 18:7–11 | Jer. 19:5 | Jer. 26:2–3 | Jer. 26:19 | Jer. 32:35 | Jer. 38:17–18, 20–21, 23 | Ezek. 12:1–3 | Ezek. 20:5–22 | Ezek. 22:29–31 | Ezek. 33:13–15 | Hosea 8:5 | Hosea 11:8–9 | Joel 2:13–14 | Amos 7:1–6 | Jonah 1:2; 3:2, 4–10; 4:2 | Matt. 25:41 | Matt. 26:39 | Acts 15:7 | Acts 21:10–12 | 2 Pet. 3:9–12 | Rev. 3:5 | Rev. 22:18

Too much Scriptural evidence points to Him predestining than is to be ignored...

too much? i see much more pointing away from his predesting all things than towards it.
 

Z Man

New member
Originally posted by Clete Pfeiffer

How do you know what faith is?

Let me answer my own question for you...

Your understanding of faith comes from the Bible, thus using faith in such a way is presuming the answer to the original question (How do you know the Bible is true?) That's a logical falacy known as question begging and is proof that your position is logically incoherent.

We can continue this all day for the rest of our lives if you wish or you can simply concede the fact that you are stuck. If the existence of God is not your starting point you cannot know anything. You will forever find youself in the same sort of question begging falacy of logic.

Allow me to quote something from Battle Royale VII that makes the point most clearly. It's a good amount to read but it is well worth it, trust me.




Of course Bob was debating an atheist and I know that you are a believer but that isn't the point. The point is simply that God must be our starting point, not the Bible. You have put God's Word in the place of God Himself and in so doing you have ripped the foundation out from under you own feet!

Resting in Him,
Clete
First of all, if it weren't for the Scriptures, we wouldn't know anything about God. We may believe there is something greater out there and attempt to worship it, but without Scriptures, we'd be worshipping false idols and gods!

Second of all, putting God's Word in the place of God Himself doesn't even make freakin' sense!

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the WORD WAS GOD.
 
Top