ARCHIVE: Presuppositionalism - What and Why?

Balder

New member
One more thing. You have asked me on several occasions if I believe there are any universal laws. My answer is that I believe there are certain universals, which might be called laws (a metaphor taken from human social experience), depending on how one uses the term. But I would add that I believe that many of the things we call laws are more likely universal habits. Certainly, this is the contention of Buddhism, and a number of modern physicists and biologists agree: things manifest and behave in a certain way, along certain "grooves" or lines of development, not because abstract laws compel them to, but because a momentum has built up which makes one sort of happening more likely than another, given certain prevailing conditions. If immutable laws were actually in effect in all areas of the development of systems and organisms, then how would mutations and variations occur ... whence would come novelty? Quantum physicists says that absolute determinism is out; there is an openness at the heart of reality which allows for the new, even though the "old" carries a lot of weight and makes movement in one direction much more likely than in other ways...

So, when you speak of laws, what exactly are you thinking of? Are you talking about lawfulness and order in general, or about specific laws that are observable in the universe? Do you think gravity, entropy, and the speed of light are all specifically derive from similar laws that exist in the nature of God?

As I said in earlier posts, two Buddhist tenets -- the primordiality of experience or "mind" and the radical interdependence and co-determination of phenomena -- are quite capable of accounting for the order of cosmos. The primordiality of "mind" is not something many physicists readily accept, though some (like David Bohm) speak about the primordiality of meaning (soma-significance and signa-somatics), but the idea that the universe is holistically interrelated, somehow seamless or "entangled," in which the whole is implicate in every part, is more strongly supported by current evidence and is not viewed as far-fetched by many quantum physicists, as I'm sure you're aware. So, although Buddhism does not depend on nor look to science for support, its teachings on interdependence definitely find their reflections in many modern theories. The verity of these teachings may also be found in phenomenological exploration of direct experience in meditation, and they are quite philosophically sound as well (that's another discussion).

Since you just love translator Herbert Guenther's way with words, especially when he's trying to explicate a Dzogchen text and whippin' out the hyphens, I will quote some passages from him that are relevant:

"The quest for life’s meaning reaches its completion in the realization and enactment of meaningful existence, which implies, as inseparable from it, a sensitivity to and discovery of meanings in lived-through experience. However, behind this short and manageable term 'meaningful existence' lies a complex structure which can be circumscribed by the rather clumsy and yet more precise phrase of 'experience-as-a-thrust-towards-meaning-oriented-concreteness-in-lived-through-experience.' The hyphens serve to indicate the close bond that holds in an interlacing manner between 'existence' and 'meaning' and 'experience,' and also makes it possible to grasp these configurative constituents more specifically without sacrificing the contextual frame.

'Existence,' as used here, is neither a designation of that-ness nor a designation of finite existents in general. Rather it points to the open texture and dimension which in its very openness is already pregnant with possible meaning. 'Meaning' also is not something fixed once for all, but is an emerging, developing, and projective movement of the open dimension of existence, and acquires its full scope in lived-through experience. Since meaning is always meaning for someone, who yet never stands outside the configuration of lived experience, this circumstance points to the human being (or existent) who, in the search for ‘meaningful existence’ – for the meaning of (his) existence – cannot but start from the 'experience' of existence as the being he himself is. Such a starting point precludes any attempt to resort to such notions as 'substance' (which means different things to different persons, be they philosophers or lesser mortals), or 'particular existent,' which is always meant to be a particular ‘this’ in contrast with some other particular 'that,' and about which propositions are entertained as to the ‘what’ this particular existent is, be this 'what' then declared to be a substance or an essence.

The configuration 'existence-meaning-experience' is therefore not a category in the traditional sense. Its presentational and, at the same time, developing character directs attention to the 'how' rather than to the 'what,' and it is this 'how' that introduces the dynamic character into what otherwise might be conceived of as something static and lifeless. Moreover, this 'how' is presented in immediacy and is present as a kind of invitation to a response. The response is never mechanical, but always interpretive by virtue of lived-through experience. Presentational immediacy is already a situation open to interpretation. In its openness it is bound to the open texture of Being, and in its dynamic unfolding it is self-presenting, self-projective, and linked to interpretation which can take two different directions: the one, preserving cohesion, leads to 'meaningful existence'; the other, losing its anchorage, leads to 'fictitious being.' However, the important point to note is that 'existence-meaning-experience' is both configuration and process, and as such the constituents are throughout dialectically interpenetrating ontological features at work in every lived-through experience.

This configuration-process character of Being – an idea characteristic of Dzogchen thought and a distinct contribution to Buddhist philosophy – is in terms of facticity described as 'unchanging' and 'indestructible,' for which latter term the symbol of the diamond (vajra) is used. In terms of presentational presence it is described as a 'thrust towards and invitation by limpid clearness and consummate perspicacity'; and in terms of experience, as 'calmness,' which is meaning-orientedness and meaning-saturatedness in the experiencer’s concrete existence. Each of these three 'layers' acts as a 'founding stratum' and they all are related to each other by 'mutual foundedness.'

The first set of terms is used to make it clear that throughout experience an element of facticity is already in force which, negatively stated, implies that existence as existence can do nothing about its ‘existing’ and hence can neither be subject to change (qualitatively) nor destroyed (substantially). As facticity the open texture and open dimension of Being is in no way prejudged, contradicted, or restricted. 'Thrust towards and invitation by limpid clearness and consummate perspicacity’ points to the projective character which is inseparable from open texture in facticity, and in its presentational immediacy it preserves elements of this open dimension and facticity and solicits a response to its presence. 'Calmness' illustrates the response to the presentational immediacy of existence in experience which gives it its specific 'meaning,' that is 'calmness.' In the same way as the projective feature of existence retains its open-dimensional character, so also 'meaning' is not merely a passive resultant of the stimulus-response interaction. It, too, retains the projective texture by opening up ways towards understanding. It is therefore obvious that this configuration-process complex, first of all, is not an object alongside other objects (which in order to gain meaning would necessitate a subject). Objectification is made possible by virtue of the projective character of this configuration-process complex. Second, it follows that this configuration-process complex also is not a subject in the manner of transcendental ego, be this of the Kantian or Husserlian variety, the one synthesizing the operation of perception, imagination, and conception, the other functioning as the ultimate source of intentional consciousness. The constitution of a subject emerges late and in conjunction with the process of objectification. Moreover, the subject-object structure which belongs to and underlies all representational thinking, as one possible direction, but certainly not the only possible one, into which interpretation can move, simply does not apply here.

‘Buddha’ cannot and must not be equated with an ‘object’ or a ‘subject.’ Rather as this configuration-process complex, ‘Buddha’ points to experience which makes the emergence and constitution of a subject-object determined world-horizon possible. In this primary sense ‘Buddha’ is a term that sums up what we would call the ontology and ontogenesis of experience, which from the outset is configurative, open-dimensional, dynamical, meaning-oriented and meaning-saturated, and includes the experiencer in whom it is concretely present and who in this phrase is ‘Buddha.’ When in the interpretive analysis of experience the latter’s existentially significant, embodying and embodied character is singled out and referred to as ‘founding stratum of meaning’ (chos-sku) where founding stratum is understood as the absoluteness of Being concretely experienced, knowing as a process of disclosure (ye-shes, wisdom or knowledge of Truth) is already at work…”

Just as the heart of a lotus flower
Does not shine outward, since it is shut in by petals,
So also the capacity for Buddhahood, shining in its own light, cannot be seen
Since it is concealed by the thousand petals of subject-object constructs.
But just as the flower is there in its brightness once the petals open,
So also when we are free from the foliage of mistaken identifications that
Come due to the subject-object division,
The triple structure of our existentiality in limpid clearness and consummate
perspicacity shines by itself.

Therefore be sensitive to the presence in yourself
Of the continuum that is the internal logic of Being, the ultimately real, a
Sheer lucency…


In the above lengthy quotation [of which I have only posted two verses, to spare your eyes and your mind!], which epitomizes the multifaceted nature of experience, two themes stand out. One is that of indivisibility (dbyer-med, nonduality), the other that of configuration (dkyil-‘khor, mandala or world-horizon). Both, however are intimately related.

As we have seen in a previous chapter, indivisibility, also referred to as nonduality, names the functional operation of complementarity. It does not indicate the obliteration of differentiations, nor does it imply a fusion of disparate entities. Rather, it emphasizes the presence of a continuum from which, negatively speaking, dichotomies such as exterior and interior, subject and object, are suspended. More positively stated, these dichotomies are seen and felt to interpenetrate 'like the reflection of the moon in water.'

The indivisibility of Being and Existenz can be illustrated by analogies taken from the realm of science, which speaks of the indivisibility of energy and its radiation and of the vacuum and its fluctuations. But in Dzogchen thought there is the additional factor of intelligence which inheres in the very dynamics of the unfolding universe itself, and which makes primordiality of experience of paramount importance. The atemporal onset of this unfoldment occasions the emergence of various intentional structures, thereby allowing felt meanings to occur. Since this onset is structurally 'prior' to any functional splitting, one speaks of the indivisibility of openness (emptiness) and its presencing (form), which involves the gauging of what will become the 'world' (as the specific horizon-form of lived-through experience)…"

If you survived the above read (only a German could do that to the English language), I'll tie it in closer to this discussion with a few questions:

Do you believe existence has an origin? How about sentience or intelligence? Does it have an origin? Must these things neccessarily have an origin? Is there a relationship between them? Does God exist? Is He sentient or intelligent? Does He have an origin?

Peace,
Balder

P.S. Concerning the modus ponens, the fact that it works, that we take it to be "intuitive," is an argument for the truth of the Buddhist doctrines of pratitya-samutpada (dependent co-origination or interdependence), as well as karma.
 
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Clete

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Silver Subscriber
Jim,

You're not one to forget things like this but you've had your hands a bit full with this exchange with Balder so I thought just in case I would throw in a quick reminder on these few questions....

I think I've gotten past the circularity issue but I am still not sure why you are so dogmatic about Presuppositionalism being the only proper means of apologetics. I know that you have a lot on your plate with this thread already but I would love it if you could establish this position Biblically. If there is an article that has been written on the issue just link to it and I'll read it.
To go along with this question I would also like to understand what the problem would be with arguing the evidence with an evolutionist for example. Why is it (or is it) wrong to point out that there is no evidence for evolution, that in fact because of things like irreducible complexity, evolution is impossible?


Also, I'm curious to know how Presuppositionalism treats less foundational [theological] issues. I think I get it as far as arguing the existence of God or the truth of the Biblical worldview but how about something like Total Depravity for example. How would you argue an issue as complex as that on a presuppositional level? Or is it that you accept things like Total Depravity as presuppositions themselves? If that is the case then I'm back to the original question of how do you decide what is and is not a presupposition?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
Hi Clete,

I do apologize for letting that slip through the cracks. Thank you for the reminder. I will quickly answer your questions and then get back to Balder's posts as time allows.

Clete writes:
I think I've gotten past the circularity issue but I am still not sure why you are so dogmatic about Presuppositionalism being the only proper means of apologetics.
I base that dogmatism on several things:

(1) In every instance of instruction regarding apologetics in scripture, the presuppositional method is taught.

(2) In every example of apologetics I've found in scripture, regardless of the audience (Jews, gentiles, pagans, heathen, etc.), the apologist use the presuppositional method.

(3) In every case of non-presuppositional apologetics I've ever witnessed and analyzed, in every debate I heard or seen that uses non-presupp' apologetics, I can demonstrate not only the same logical errors in their reasoning that their opponents commit, but I can demonstrate where they violate scripture in their reasoning as well. I've not seen or heard a single non-presupp' apologist, whether Wm. Lane Craig, Jonathan Wells, Michael Behe, Phillip Johnson, Wm. Dembski, all the so-called "big guns" against evolutionism, win a debate. They lose and they don't even realize it. And their loss is not merely due to a failure to score substantial points against the atheist-evolutionist-etc., but to due to their repeated violation of biblical principles and compromising on biblical truth, which is much worse.

Of course, the audience will favor the performance of their hired gun, regardless of how badly they debated. It ends up being a big Rorschach, and it ought not to be. We're talking about objective truth, not "what do you think is more reasonable." It's black and white, logical vs. illogical, clarity vs. murkiness. This is the same complaint I have about "What is art?". If the Bible is true, then beauty is objective. It ought not to be "what do you think art is?," but rather "what is objectively beautiful?" Theistic apologetics have become the equivalent of "what is art?" and it ought not to be.

Clete writes:
I know that you have a lot on your plate with this thread already but I would love it if you could establish this position Biblically.
I have done it. I'll try to dig out my notes. But in the meantime, try to think of biblical examples of apologetics, and see what method is followed by the apologist. An excellent example is Acts 17 where Paul speaks to the Areopagans on Mars Hill.

Clete writes:
To go along with this question I would also like to understand what the problem would be with arguing the evidence with an evolutionist for example. Why is it (or is it) wrong to point out that there is no evidence for evolution, that in fact because of things like irreducible complexity, evolution is impossible?
Irreducible complexity is not a biblical argument. It's a God-of-the-gaps argument that fails on two fronts: Logically and biblically. Facts are pre-interpreted by God. To reject that proposition is to become one's own lawmaker (the sin of Adam). God says there is irreducible complexity in everything without exception, not just bacterial flagella. A pile of dirt, a field of grass, the arrangement of galaxies. All of these are as irreducible as a bacterial flagellum. The argument for IC is based on human perception, not on God's declared truth. To see this, consider the questions that IC requires the arguer to make: What "seems" to be designed to you? Doesn't this "seem" to be something that could not happen by chance? The reasonable opponent will say, "Just because we don't understand the mechanism behind its evolution today doesn't mean we won't discover it tomorrow. This is a God of the gaps argument."

Clete writes:
Also, I'm curious to know how Presuppositionalism treats less foundational [theological] issues. I think I get it as far as arguing the existence of God or the truth of the Biblical worldview but how about something like Total Depravity for example.
The way you worded your question betrays a prejudice that itself would need to be justified. I happen to think Total Depravity is a foundational theological issue. But to answer your question, here is the principle as I see it: Between opposing worldviews (views about ultimate questions), presuppositons about those ultimate questions must be exposed, challenged, and scrutinized for soundness. But within a shared biblical worldview (where the answers to ultimate questions are agreed upon), the scriptures are the standard. The following link will give you some examples of what I'm talking about:

Pauline Apologetics and Evangelical Religions

Clete writes:
How would you argue an issue as complex as that [TD]on a presuppositional level?
It would be argued on the basis of the scriptures. But the same two-pronged principle taught in Prov 26:4,5 will apply.

Clete writes:
Or is it that you accept things like Total Depravity as presuppositions themselves?
It could be considered a presupposition, but it doesn't matter what you call it. The question is not whether or not something is a presupposition, but is the claim, whatever it is, is it defensible?; is it sound?; and does it make sense?

Clete writes:
If that is the case then I'm back to the original question of how do you decide what is and is not a presupposition?
I think you're getting hung up on the term. It doesn't matter. Let's call all claims "glicks" from now on. You still deal with them the same way, regardless of what you call them, regardless of whether the claim is presupposed or discursively developed. The term "presuppositional apologetics" is aimed at distinguishing itself from "evidential apologetics", which relies not upon attacking false views biblically, but humanistically (using, for example, irreducible complexity).

Let me know if anything is unclear.
 
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Balder

New member
I second Clete's question, but I would stop a few steps shorter than him. I can imagine why you might take general "theism" presuppositionally, as an a priori truth (and that is something we could debate), but how exactly do you take something as complex as the whole history of a particular people as recorded in a book, with all their interactions with God and the truths (or truth claims) which emerge from that interaction as a priori truth? I don't see how those things, even if accepted as true, could be anything but a posteriori truth -- truth which you accept based on experience, evidence, etc. You just can't arrive at the whole Bible by pure rational thought devoid of experience. So where does a priori leave off and a posteriori begin in the whole big package you call your worldview? If you do argue that the Bible itself must be taken as an a priori truth, what is the basis for such an argument?

Concerning your "full hands" when it comes to your interactions with me that Clete mentioned, you can just skip over the quotes from Guenther in the last post. I can easily replace them with a summary, in fact, if Clete would like me to save space.

Peace,
Balder

P.S. I just saw your post to Clete above:

(1) In every instance of instruction regarding apologetics in scripture, the presuppositional method is taught.

(2) In every example of apologetics I've found in scripture, regardless of the audience (Jews, gentiles, pagans, heathen, etc.), the apologist use the presuppositional method.

The prevalence of presuppositional arguments in those contexts could easily be explained without imagining that they therefore have a divine sanction, because the fact is, most people argue from presuppositions. They take their own beliefs and biases for granted. That's why they're called presuppositions. Being presuppositions in themselves does not make them correct, however. Why should the operation of a universal human characteristic of rather unconsciously taking things we've learned in our lives as "just the way things are" be seen as divine in the case of the Jewish people, and none other?
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Balder
Concerning your "full hands" when it comes to your interactions with me that Clete mentioned, you can just skip over the quotes from Guenther in the last post. I can easily replace them with a summary, in fact, if Clete would like me to save space.

Don't worry about me! I'm learning quite a bit so feel free to keep going the way you are. I am concidering having this thread moved to something other than the Exclusively Christian forum since you and Jim are giving the bulk of the material here but then again if it stays here we won't have to worry about 5 other people joining the conversation from 5 other different directions, perhaps it's better to just leave well enough alone. At any rate, while shorter posts are better than longer ones, the way things are progressing seems fine to me, so have at it. :thumb:

Jim,

Thanks for that last post, it was excellent. I do have some additional questions but I'll have to wait till later to post them. Too much work to do!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Hilston

Active member
Hall of Fame
To Balder:

Hilston wrote: ince there is a personal, logical, righteous, omniscient and omnipotent Creator there is order.

Balder writes:
How do you know there is a personal, logical, righteous, omniscient and omnipotent Creator?
I've answered this. I know because of regeneration. I've been given the gift of faith and certainty in God's existence and the verity of His Word. I don't offer this as proof of anything, but it is what you asked for.

Hilston wrote:
My personal belief in God is a priori, not a posteriori.


Balder writes:
Where do you get your knowledge of God’s nature? If it is from the testimony of the authors of the Bible, or from the testimony of creation, then it is a posteriori knowledge, is it not?
Yes it is. My knowledge about God is not the same as my belief in Him. The former is a posteriori, the latter is a priori.

Balder writes:
Your “knowledge” comes by way of the experience of hearing the testimony of someone/thing you regard as a reliable agent.
Correct.

Hilston wrote:
It's not an assumption (that matter would be chaotic without an orderly creator behind it). It is an objective truth.


Balder writes:
What is the basis for your claim that this is ‘objective truth’?
The Scripture.

Balder writes:
Are you deferring to the absolute authority which you have granted to the Bible?
I've "granted" nothing of the sort. The Bible is the authoritative revelation of God to man whether or not I ever "grant" anything concerning it.

Balder writes:
I guess what I am wanting to get at here with this series of quotes and questions is the reason for your belief in the absolute reliability and “divine origin” of the Bible.
The reason for my belief is the gift of faith and certainty that I received when I was regenerated.

Balder writes:
In other threads, I have touched on this subject with Clete and BChristianK, and I suggested it was likely to be central to the arguments of this thread. So, would you mind talking a little about why you believe the Bible to be the infallible word of God?
Again, I've already answered this. I'll do so again: I believe the Bible to be the infallible word of God because at regeneration, the Holy Spirit gives the regenerated person the gift of faith and certitude about the Bible.

Balder writes:
Even if I were to accept that having a theistic "creator" behind creation were somehow logically necessary, you have not demonstrated why the Christian creator is uniquely qualified in its explanatory power.
Let me ask this question, and if I may also urge you to answer it as clearly as you can: What would you say (YOU, Balder, not Dzogchen, not Siddhartha, but YOU) is the necessary precondition for the intelligibility of human experience? I claim the God of the Judeo-Christian Bible is the only coherent answer. I welcome your suggested alternative.

Balder writes:
... As I said in a previous letter, many apologists make an unfounded leap from demonstrating (in their minds) the logical need for a “first cause” to asserting, “Therefore, Christianity is true.” And that is intellectually dishonest.
I agree with you. My task is to show how your view cannot rationally account the intelligibility of human experience and how mine does. In order to do that, I need to know more about your view. At this point, since you do not you agree that my view is exclusively rational, do you at least agree that my view is one rational explanation for the intelligibility of reality?

Hilston writes:
When I say "I don't know," I am not saying He is that way because He is that way. I offer no causal accounting of God, whereas Aussie Thinker was attempting a causal accounting of logic. It is not at all the same kind of thinking Aussie Thinker was guilty of. There is no causal explanation being offered when I say, "I don't know." Whereas, when Aussie Thinker says, "It happened because it did," he is offering a causal explanation that is blatantly irrational, unacceptable and amounts to a blind faith commitment.


Balder writes:
If Aussie Thinker had not been innocently lured into your trap ...
It wasn't a trap. His claim was unsolicited. It was like a gift.

Balder writes:
... and had refused to give a causal accounting for logic or order, insisting instead only on their primordial necessity, would you still have accused him of blind faith? Why or why not?
To insist on an impersonal monolithic primordial necessity is also blind faith, because it leads to an irrational dualism. The Many and the One cannot be accounted for. Universals and particulars make no sense on such a view. You earlier mentioned how Dzogchen rescues you from dualism. I'd like for you to unpack this, in your own words, if you can.

Hilston wrote:
Thank you for those details (and for not quoting a Tibetan manuscript). I do find it fascinating, but I must ask you, does any of this historical information compel your belief in the verity of Dzogchen claims? Or is there more that impresses you? I mean, certainly there are others throughout history who have comparable resumes and credentials. What is it about Dzogchen that gets your vote to the exclusion of the others?


Balder writes:
Heck, I even believe Christianity is partially true…although the “reflections of truth” that I see in Christianity have been dismissed by some here as shameless importations of Buddhism.
While I claim that Buddhism has shamelessly imported truths from the Biblical worldview. Note that the antiquity of manuscript evidence is irrelevant if the Judeo-Christian worldview is true. God and His revelation to man (in whatever form) are prior to all other religions, so the extent to which any non-Judeo-Christian religion holds truth is precisely the extent to which that religion has borrowed, whether shamelessly or unwittingly, from the Judeo-Christian worldview.

Balder writes:
My faith in the Dzogchen body of teachings does not rest only on my esteem for some of its teachers and writers. I related to the content of the teachings before I knew much about the authors, because the teachings themselves resolved problems I’d encountered and deeply illuminated glimpses I’d had during my several years of meditation in monasteries in Asia.
Please share an example of what you mean.

Balder writes:
Within Tibetan Buddhism itself, Dzogchen is highly revered; it is considered the highest “vehicle,” and for most of its history it was a relatively secret tradition, not taught openly but only one-to-one.
Why is that?

Balder writes:
... this direct experience of its teachings and its meditative practices has only strengthened my faith in the truth of this tradition.
Please define what you mean when you say "my faith."

I'll stop here for now. More later.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
At least SOMEbody has been reading Rushdooney, Van Til, or Sproul.
Great minds tread where it is presupposed the unregenerate cannot enter. I agree with Van Til's presuppositional apologetics.

That is one issue upon which I must disagree with Sproul. I disagreed with classical apologetics even before I became reformed.
It will forever be true that "...in the wisdom of God, the world by wisdom knew not God."
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
Great minds tread where it is presupposed the unregenerate cannot enter.
What exactly do you mean by this? Jim has said similar things as well but I don't think you can establish such a statement.

First of all it is totally unfalsifiable. If I understand what you are saying correctly only the "regenerate" mind can "get it" and that if you don't get it it's because your not "regenerate" and if you do it's because you are "regenerate". Question begging at its finest!

Secondly, there are lots of people whom you cannot deny are "regenerate" (I put the word in quotes because I do not believe that the Calvinistic version of regeneration is a valid theology in the first place) who do not even know what presuppositionalism is and definitely do not use it in their apologetics. Some are intentionally not presuppositionalists and yet are directly responsible for having lead hundreds or even thousands of people to a saving knowledge of Jesus Christ. The point being that you do not need to be a presuppositionalist to believe in Jesus. Some people can decide to believe based on the evidence even if that evidence is, in fact, unable to prove anything on its own. In other words, not everybody puts this much deep philosophical thought into their decision to follow Christ. Some people just think it makes sense, some people have totally non intellectual reasons for placing their faith in Christ. In fact, I would say that most people do not go through any sort of rigorous intellectual exercise trying to come up with the answer to life the universe and everything. Most people put their faith in Christ because they have been influenced, on a relationship level by friends, acquaintances or family members, whom they trust; it has absolutely nothing to do with "figuring it all out" or anything like that.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Balder

New member
Hilston,

Balder writes: How do you know there is a personal, logical, righteous, omniscient and omnipotent Creator?

I've answered this. I know because of regeneration. I've been given the gift of faith and certainty in God's existence and the verity of His Word. I don't offer this as proof of anything, but it is what you asked for.

I'm glad you aren't offering this as proof of anything. Are you saying that your belief in the verity of God's word precedes your knowledge of its contents and in fact does not depend in any way on the particulars it communicates?

Also, how do you know that you have been regenerated? Is it that you feel predisposed to believe everything the Bible says, even prior to reading and testing it; or is it that after rationally testing the Bible's claims, you have been convinced it is true? Or are there other "signs" that you appeal to that convince you that you are regenerate?

Hilston wrote:
My knowledge about God is not the same as my belief in Him. The former is a posteriori, the latter is a priori.

What thought process allows you to come to the a priori belief that God must exist? Does this reasoning process take place apart from the information communicated in the Bible? If so, how do you know the two are connected?

Balder writes: Are you deferring to the absolute authority which you have granted to the Bible?

I've "granted" nothing of the sort. The Bible is the authoritative revelation of God to man whether or not I ever "grant" anything concerning it.

If the idea that the Bible is the direct revelation of God is not something that can be proven, but rather is something which you believe on faith, then by placing your faith in it you have in fact granted absolute authority to it.

: Balder writes: Even if I were to accept that having a theistic "creator" behind creation were somehow logically necessary, you have not demonstrated why the Christian creator is uniquely qualified in its explanatory power.

Let me ask this question, and if I may also urge you to answer it as clearly as you can: What would you say (YOU, Balder, not Dzogchen, not Siddhartha, but YOU) is the necessary precondition for the intelligibility of human experience? I claim the God of the Judeo-Christian Bible is the only coherent answer. I welcome your suggested alternative.

I trust by stressing that you want an answer from me, and not Dzogchen or Buddhism, you aren't asking me to give an opinion that is completely independent of my faith, but rather you are begging me to spare you from having to read another Guenther quote. If so, your wish will be granted! I will do so when I have more time than these few minutes on my lunch break at work.

Balder writes: ... As I said in a previous letter, many apologists make an unfounded leap from demonstrating (in their minds) the logical need for a “first cause” to asserting, “Therefore, Christianity is true.” And that is intellectually dishonest.

I agree with you. My task is to show how your view cannot rationally account the intelligibility of human experience and how mine does. In order to do that, I need to know more about your view. At this point, since you do not you agree that my view is exclusively rational, do you at least agree that my view is one rational explanation for the intelligibility of reality?

I concede that there are some rational elements to the Christian worldview, but I also would have to know more about your particular worldview before I agreed that your view would qualify as a rational contender in my "list" of viable perspectives. If you subscribe to some form of Calvinism, then I have to say up front that that in itself gives me doubts about the viability of your perspective, as I regard Calvinism (as I understand it) to be probably one of the darkest and most morally problematic perspectives to ever have flowered in Christian soil.

To insist on an impersonal monolithic primordial necessity is also blind faith, because it leads to an irrational dualism. The Many and the One cannot be accounted for. Universals and particulars make no sense on such a view. You earlier mentioned how Dzogchen rescues you from dualism. I'd like for you to unpack this, in your own words, if you can.

Why do you think an Atheist's insistence on an "impersonal monolithic primordial necessity" would lead to irrational dualism? I can think of some reasons, but I would like to hear yours.

As for presenting my own view...that is forthcoming, as promised.

Balder writes: Within Tibetan Buddhism itself, Dzogchen is highly revered; it is considered the highest “vehicle,” and for most of its history it was a relatively secret tradition, not taught openly but only one-to-one.

Why is that?

For a number of reasons. One, most people wouldn't get it, or else they would misuse it. Why do you think Jesus shared some things with his disciples that he did not preach to the masses?

Please define what you mean when you say "my faith."

My trust, my confidence, my devotion, my fidelity.

Peace,
Balder

P.S. NOTE TO CLETE:

I just saw this:

First of all it is totally unfalsifiable. If I understand what you are saying correctly only the "regenerate" mind can "get it" and that if you don't get it it's because your not "regenerate" and if you do it's because you are "regenerate". Question begging at its finest!

It seems like this is exactly what Hilston is arguing. Do you think so as well? I'd like your perspective on this, as well as Hilston's, because it sure does appear he is engaging in question begging here.
 
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Clete

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Originally posted by Balder
It seems like this is exactly what Hilston is arguing. Do you think so as well? I'd like your perspective on this, as well as Hilston's, because it sure does appear he is engaging in question begging here.

I know! I don't get it. All I can say for certain is that Jim definately doesn't see it as question begging. I personally don't see how it can't be (I know a double negative) but a month ago I would have said Jim was a nutcase for buying into this presuppositionalism thing too, so I'm not about to get too dogmatic about it yet. We'll just have to wait and see if Jim can clear it up for us.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

temple2006

New member
Wow...What a heavy discussion!!!!!
I do know that everyone comes to the table (discussion) with their own filters (apriori). But the person who can divest himself of, or at least realize, the filters are there, can progress.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
Clete--RE your post #88: Scripture declares my statement to be so:

"...the natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness unto him; neither can he know them..." 1 Cor. 2:14

"...in the wisdom of God, the world by wisdom knew not God..."
1 Cor. 1:21

"...a man can receive nothing except it be given him from heaven."
Jn.3:27

Why do you not understand my speech? Even because you cannot hear my word...he that is of God hears God's word. You therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God." Jn. 8:43,47

These texts are not directed to you personally, Clete. They are only proof texts which form the basis for presuppositional apologetics.
 

Rolf Ernst

New member
Clete--in the latter part of your post 88, you state some things I agree with. Not all calvinists are presuppositionalists, and many who are not can and have led many to Christ. There are many good Christians who know nothing of the differences between classical apologetics and presuppositional apologetics.

I don't know Sproul's motive in his use of classical apologetics. It is possible that he is using it as a means to engage the mind of unbelievers. He may thereby extend a conversation which would otherwise be much shorter, but I doubt the profitability of such a practice. I think it might actually be detrimental in that it credits man's reasoning with a potential which, according to scripture, it does not have.

Nevertheless, people who could not define either form of apologetics are used by the Lord. The critical thing is the message of Christ. If that is proclaimed, the Holy Spirit can use it in His work even if people's motives in declaring it are not proper. (See Phil. 1:15-18)
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
I don't know Sproul's motive in his use of classical apologetics. It is possible that he is using it as a means to engage the mind of unbelievers. He may thereby extend a conversation which would otherwise be much shorter, but I doubt the profitability of such a practice. I think it might actually be detrimental in that it credits man's reasoning with a potential which, according to scripture, it does not have.

You, I believe are reading your theology into the text. If man's reasoning does not have such potential then why is classical apologetics so remarkably successful? I can tell you what motivates Sproul, success that's what! C.S. Lewis is another great man of God who was a master of classical apologetics; his writings are responsible for perhaps hundreds of thousands of people coming to faith in Christ and millions more believers gained a stronger faith through those same writings. C.S. Lewis himself came to faith in Christ after having considered the perfection of the design of a baby's ear (or so I've heard). He considered it impossible that such perfection could have just happened by accident. He came to faith because the was substantive evidence that God must exist and he had the moral courage to accept what that evidence was telling him(i.e. faith Heb.11:1).
Josh McDowell is yet another skeptic what was fully persuaded by the overwhelming mountain of evidence that demands the conclusion that not only must God exist but Jesus Christ is that God.
Bob Enyart's video Mount Moriah is all about the literal mountain of evidence for the resurrection of Jesus Christ and is responsible for many having come to Christ.
And there are just thousands upon multiplied thousands of examples of classical apologetics working very effectively in bringing lost souls into the Body of Christ. I simply cannot understand how one could object to something which has had its effectiveness so clearly demonstrated throughout the history of the church.
Jim suggests that every apologetic episode in Scripture is given on a presuppositional level. Well, that sure is easy to say but it is a lot harder to prove. First of all you would have to demonstrate that you have identified and analyzed every apologetic conversation in the Bible which if you got 10 people in a room and asked how many of such conversations take place you'd get 14 different answers. And if by some miracle you got everyone on the same page as too how many there were, if you compounded that miracle by getting them all to agree that they are all presuppositional you'd just about qualify to be God Himself!
Take James chapter 2 for example...

James2:18 But someone will say, "You have faith, and I have works." Show me your faith without your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.

James' argument cuts both ways. He says that one's claim to faith is belied by the lack of evidence and his is proven by the presence of works as the evidence of that faith.
This doesn't sound like a presuppositionally based argument to me, and it is definitely apologetic.

Further, even if James is, by some means that I cannot see, arguing on a presuppositional level and that Jim's suggestion is completely right about every apologetic given in Scripture being presuppositional in nature, that does not prove that presuppositional arguments are the only valid ones that can be made. The Bible is not a text book on apologetics. For the most part, it is not attempting to convince anyone of the truth or to explain why it must be true, it simply declares what the truth is and leaves it at that. Giving an apology for the existence of God is absolutely not the purpose of the Bible, it is not why it was written, it is not what it's about, it has nothing to do with that topic at all, it is not an apology, period. Now I agree that there are passages that can be applied to the discipline of apologetics and they should be applied of course but to suggest that classical apologetic is unbiblical is simply taking things way too far in my view and actually manages to take the whole entire Bible out of its context, not just one or two verses like most people do every day but I'm talking the whole entire Bible! Now that's a pretty neat trick! I didn't even know that was possible!
Well, okay perhaps I'm overstating things a bit, but I trust you see my point. If you want to call classical apologetics (here after CA) extra-biblical I could probably live with that but I think that such a term would just be a case of picking nits. In my estimation CA is no more unbiblical than mathematics or the scientific method. While they stand upon the foundation of a Biblical world view and the presuppositions that come with such a worldview, they are not prohibited by Scripture and are thus not only permissible but effective tools to be used by the intellectually honest student of the truth.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Hilston

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Combined reply to Rolf and Clete:

Originally posted by Rolf Ernst
I don't know Sproul's motive in his use of classical apologetics.
His book of the same title is a joke. Half the book is an irrational and unbiblical defense of Thomistic-Paley-esque argumentation and an attempted vindication of the "classic" theistic proofs that are all so frightfully embarrassing. The last half of the book is straw man critique of presuppositionalism. Three men authored this book and not one of them could get it right. They wouldn't know presuppositionalism if it came up and bit them on their collective tuchus. The most egregiously offensive thing about this book is that it was published after a public debate between R.C. Sproul and Greg Bahnsen on the very subject. There's no excuse for Sproul et al to publish such a bucket of excrement and to continue to stand by it.

Rolf Ernst writes:I think it might actually be detrimental in that it credits man's reasoning with a potential which, according to scripture, it does not have.
Well said.

Clete writes:
Jim suggests that every apologetic episode in Scripture is given on a presuppositional level. Well, that sure is easy to say but it is a lot harder to prove.
It's not hard at all. Take your pick. Which apologetic episode would you like to consider first?

Clete writes:
First of all you would have to demonstrate that you have identified and analyzed every apologetic conversation in the Bible which if you got 10 people in a room and asked how many of such conversations take place you'd get 14 different answers.
Truth is not ascertained by consensus, Clete. If you can find a single apologetic episode in scripture that uses evidentialism ("classical" apologetics), then I will recant and admit my error. You only have to find one.

By the way, James 2 isn't about defending the faith or preaching the gospel to the unbeliever. It's about the believer demonstrating his faith to others by his works. And guess what? He does so presuppositionally! He doesn't ask the onlooker to consider his works and to conclude that God exists. God's existence is an irrefragable given. That's presuppositionalism.

Clete writes:
The Bible is not a text book on apologetics.
The Bible is a book. The Bible contains, in text, commands and examples about apologetics. To me, that qualifies as an apologetics textbook.

Clete writes:
Giving an apology for the existence of God is absolutely not the purpose of the Bible, it is not why it was written, it is not what it's about, it has nothing to do with that topic at all, it is not an apology, period.
That's not what apologetics is about, Clete. Defending the faith is not about proving the existence of God. Everyone already knows He exists. That's a given. (Ro 1:18-21). Those who deny it are lying. Those who deny lying are being deliberately self-deluded or are delusional.

Clete writes:
... but to suggest that classical apologetic is unbiblical is simply taking things way too far in my view and actually manages to take the whole entire Bible out of its context, ...
Take any classical apologetic you like, and it can shown biblically to be a fallacious argument.

Clete writes:
While they stand upon the foundation of a Biblical world view and the presuppositions that come with such a worldview, ...
But that's just it, Clete. They don't stand upon that. They're embarrassed by it. They want credibility and reputation and to impress people with their enlightened approach to "possibility of God's existence", and they attempt to do so by leaving the scriptures out of it.

Clete writes:
In my estimation CA is no more unbiblical than mathematics or the scientific method.
On the basis of the CA apologetic, they are disqualified from using mathematics and the scientific method rationally. I would ask Sproul, Lindsley, Gerstner, Craig, Behe, Dembski, Wells, Johnson and all the rest the same questions I asked Prodigal in the other thread. They, too, would be shown to have an irrational blind faith concerning the very tools they presume to use to do mathematics and science. I've debated plenty of evidentialists, and they all end up looking just like Prodigal.
 

Hilston

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Also, just because someone got saved at a Marilyn Manson concert doesn't justify Ms. Manson's theology or evangelical methods. And just because people have gotten saved under Benny Hinn, Robert Tilton, Bob Enyart, RC Sproul, etc., doesn't validate their respective theology, evangelical strategy or their apologetic method.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Hilston
On the basis of the CA apologetic, they are disqualified from using mathematics and the scientific method rationally. I would ask Sproul, Lindsley, Gerstner, Craig, Behe, Dembski, Wells, Johnson and all the rest the same questions I asked Prodigal in the other thread. They, too, would be shown to have an irrational blind faith concerning the very tools they presume to use to do mathematics and science. I've debated plenty of evidentialists, and they all end up looking just like Prodigal.
I assume by "they" you mean unbelievers. If so, that misses my point a bit. I understand why an unbeliever has no standing upon which to justify their use is mathematics, or science but that isn't true of the believer. A solid foundation is found under the believer's worldview and thus he is perfectly justified in the use of such extra biblical tools.
The point is, that I can demonstrate from whatever direction you want to come it that God is real and that there is evidence to back it up. Arguing that science flies out the window if you disregard God is one tack that I could take but I do not see how granting the validity of science to the unbeliever for the sake of argument is somehow egregiously offensive.
Do you see what I'm getting at here? I can pull the ground right out from under their feet or I can defeat them on that very same ground without ripping it out from under them. Why one would want to do one or the other depends on the situation at the time the conversation takes place. And while I'm prepared to grant you the point (for now) that such debates do not have Biblical precedent, I do not think that such debates have been prohibited by Scripture and so what God permits let not man forbid.

Oh and one last thing, you said almost nothing about this regeneration question begging issue, could you explain how such a position is not question begging?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Hilston

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Clete writes:
I assume by "they" you mean unbelievers.
No, I mean Sproul, Lindsley and Gerstner. I don't think they're being consistent with their own espoused methods.

Clete writes:
... I understand why an unbeliever has no standing upon which to justify their use is mathematics, or science but that isn't true of the believer.
It is true of many believers. Most of them haven't been sufficiently challenged on this point, so their inconsistency hasn't been exposed. In the case of Sproul, he is so vehemently opposed to presuppositional reasoning, he commits the foolish error of not basing his math and science upon the grounding of scripture.

Clete writes:
A solid foundation is found under the believer's worldview and thus he is perfectly justified in the use of such extra biblical tools.
That's true, but most believers are unaware of this and have never adequately reflected on the matter.

Clete writes:
The point is, that I can demonstrate from whatever direction you want to come it that God is real and that there is evidence to back it up.
The very enterprise, as you've stated it, is unbiblical. We don't have to demonstrate that God is real. We don't have to surrender the tools, OUR tools, to the atheist. He doesn't get to use our tools unless he can justify his right to use them. Until then, he can get his own tools. That was my message to Prodigal, and he finally, if even for a second, realized that he couldn't justify his use of MY tools and that he had no tools of his own.

Clete writes:
Arguing that science flies out the window if you disregard God is one tack that I could take but I do not see how granting the validity of science to the unbeliever for the sake of argument is somehow egregiously offensive.
It's a lie, that's why. That's exactly what Adam tried to do in the Garden. He wanted to use God's tools to evaluate God. It is the Luciferian Thesis and Adam bought it. I'm urging you to reject it.

Clete writes:
Do you see what I'm getting at here? I can pull the ground right out from under their feet or I can defeat them on that very same ground without ripping it out from under them.
They have no ground. That's the point. They are floating in the void. The fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom. Not by reasoning. Not by granting real estate to the gainsayer that they've neither earned nor are entitled to. Even if someone were to raise from the dead, they still will not believe. That's what the Bible says.

Clete writes:
Why one would want to do one or the other depends on the situation at the time the conversation takes place. And while I'm prepared to grant you the point (for now) that such debates do not have Biblical precedent, I do not think that such debates have been prohibited by Scripture and so what God permits let not man forbid.
God prohibited it in the Garden. Paul makes the same warning in 2Co 11:3. Don't be an evidentialist like Adam and Eve. Satan is subtle. Sure, he wants people to blaspheme God, but that wasn't his approach in the Garden. He was satisfied by just getting Adam to question God's goodness, if even for a moment. He doesn't mind that people want to justify God, as long as they become their own lawmakers in the process. Satan wants you to try to justify God independently of God. That is the eating of the fruit from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. That was the sin of Job's friends. They said a lot of right things, but they tried to justify God on their own standards, on their own laws, independently of God.

Clete writes:
Oh and one last thing, you said almost nothing about this regeneration question begging issue, could you explain how such a position is not question begging?
Regeneration isn't part of the argument or proof, so there is no question-begging. I discuss regeneration from a personal subjective position for description and explanation only, not as an objective argument or proof.
 
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billwald

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McDowell raises straw men, such as his book title, "Who Moved The Stone?"

Reformed Presupps' bottom line is that no one can understand the Bible except people who agree with their theology are equivalent to Baptist presupps who claim that God only listens to their prayers.
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Hilston
God prohibited it in the Garden. Paul makes the same warning in 2Co 11:3. Don't be an evidentialist like Adam and Eve. Satan is subtle. Sure, he wants people to blaspheme God, but that wasn't his approach in the Garden. He was satisfied by just getting Adam to question God's goodness, if even for a moment. He doesn't mind that people want to justify God, as long as they become their own lawmakers in the process. Satan wants you to try to justify God independently of God. That is the eating of the fruit from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. That was the sin of Job's friends. They said a lot of right things, but they tried to justify God on their own standards, on their own laws, independently of God.
What else do you have on this subject? Do you know of any publications that I can read that expand on this? It is a somewhat different understanding of what was going on with Adam's rebelion than what I've heard before.
 
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