A couple of questions might help....
1. Where in scripture does it state that God 'hopes'?
2. How does proximal foreknowledge escape your ideas about foreknowledge in general concerning free will decisions?
Rob
There is an OT reference to God expecting good grapes from Israel (a form of hope?), but was distressed that they produced bad grapes. The great grief at Adam's fall was also a change. When God created Lucifer and Adam, it seems he expected or 'hoped' that their perfect setting would minimize the risk of falling. Things were 'very good'. After the fall, there was a change in disposition and He was grieved to the core and wanted to wipe man out. His 'hopes' were dashed leading to a plan of redemption that was anticipated, but not a foregone conclusion. Principles, not proof texts.
Weather predictions can be fairly accurate a few days out, but less probable beyond that. Not only does perfect past and present knowledge help with proximal foreknowledge, God can also intervene and influence exceptionally to make things come to pass. Judas and Peter and prophecy are OT objections with possible answers. It seems to me there are many more issues for non-OTs to deal with than these 2 or 3 objections.
OT can take all verses at face value. Non-OTs must subordinate one set of verses to another set in order to avoid contradiction. e.g. God does not and cannot change in any way is an assumption that necessitates making the 'changing' verses/motif as figurative. The better solution is to see two motifs where God changes in some vs all ways (but always consistent with His character). God is not wishy-washy and fickle, but He is also not a stone! This allows us to have a normative approach of taking the verses at face value unless a strong reason to see them as figurative. The only reason Calvinists and others make them figurative is to retain a preconceived idea of what a perfect God should be (philosophical, not biblical), not because the texts demand it.
Am I right, or what? I need some rep for a fix.