ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 2

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godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Has anyone recently submitted the factor that LFW does not even exist; and therefore what does not exist, cannot possibly, or legitimately; let alone theoretically, be a basis of debate . . .especially if such a hypothetical might affect God's omniscience and exhaustive foreknowledge?

How could any version of (mortal; human; sinful) hypothetical thought compete with absolute revelation from the holy and perfectly righteous mind and mouth of God?

(e.g. Holy Scriptures)

If not . . I (re-)submit this very factor . . .

There is absolutely no such thing as a "FREE" will, existent in any of God's creatures.

Not according to the Holy Scriptures.

There is no man or woman on this discussion board who can present such a notion from the Bible. NONE!



Nang


Which proof texts do you use to show that we cannot chose between chocolate or vanilla, between adultery or fidelity?

Free will is self-evident. The Fall of Lucifer and Adam illustrate this truth.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
So what?

Do you compare God's act of creation, and determination to eliminate all evil in order to provide an eternal kingdom for His son . . . truly comparable to the sin-tainted activities of His creatures?


Nang


We do not dispute the texts that show God settles specific things about the future. However, you totally ignore the other motif that shows that other things are unsettled. Man, not God, gave names to the animals. My wife and I freely married and procreated. Other people divorce and abort their children. A holy God does not cause both circumstances, we do (hence personal responsibility and inability to blame God).

Your mistake is to prooftext out of context and extrapolate from the specific to the general and then dismiss other themes that would undermine your myopic assumptions.

God has a purpose and a program and He will triumph and bring His purposes to pass. However, the ministry of Jesus reveals a warfare model, not a blueprint one. Thy will be done on earth is a legit prayer because there are times His will is not done (heinous evil, etc.). He does not need every molecule and moral choice to be dictated in order for the cross, resurrection, and Second Coming to happen. It does not matter if my cat and dog are alive or if I eat breakfast or not. God is not insecure like your view portrays. Only an insecure, weak God would have to micromanage and control things to achieve victory. Given His greatness, He can rule providentially and responsively (macro vs micromangage).

Bah!:mad:
 

lee_merrill

New member
Hi everyone,

themuzicman said:
You're stuck in a rut. Did you read the story about how John got his name?
Certainly, and I agree that God can bring about human choices. This contradicts a principle in the Open View that such choices cannot be known.

Those that are specific are going to happen.
So these, then:

Revelation 9:20 The rest of mankind that were not killed by these plagues still did not repent ...

Revelation 11:13 and the survivors were terrified and gave glory to the God of heaven.

Revelation 16:9 They were seared by the intense heat and they cursed the name of God, who had control over these plagues, but they refused to repent and glorify him.

But these are (free, so OVT would say) human choices.

Or are you so much into "I gotta have my eternal life!" that you're unwilling to simply obey God and let Him do what is right?
Well, let’s be zealous in this matter, “strive earnestly to enter the narrow gate.” But yes, I cannot demand salvation.

Who said that Jesus came to destroy specific works?
John did, I would say: 1 John 3:8 The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work.

So then did he come for this purpose and fail? If the devil does accomplish some of his aim to steal, kill and destroy? And propitiation, and judgment, do not change this aspect of the devil accomplishing some of his purpose.

godrulz said:
God has a purpose and a program and He will triumph and bring His purposes to pass. However, the ministry of Jesus reveals a warfare model, not a blueprint one. Thy will be done on earth is a legit prayer because there are times His will is not done (heinous evil, etc.).
This is the Open View.

themuzicman said:
I would not seek happiness for all of mankind by committing an evil.
Nor I. But what of being required to allow evil you would rather not have, in order to bring human happiness? I think the question is still to be pressed, in that case. Should there be any suffering that is regrettable, and a real loss, in order to have a paradise? This is the ends justifying the means, it does seem.

Blessings,
Lee
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
You didn't say that 'A' is 'might be going to Wendy's to buy lunch'.

Yes. "MIGHT" is not an indication of DEFINITE FOREKNOWLEDGE. It's an indication that it is an option. I went to Little Caesars, and yet this statement is still true.

Looks defined to me.

"Might" only defines options. It doesn't define what will definitely happen.

Michael
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
As did your proof: I am agent A, Z is 11am this morning, and 'A' is going to Wendy's to buy lunch.(How do you know that 'A' is going to Wendy's without definite foreknowledge?)

Because I'm not stating what I WILL do. I'm stating what I MIGHT do, an option.

Sounds good. The only problem is that your starting premise is therefore false and the argument is invalid. In fact, my entire claim is that you can't prove doing otherwise unless your argument uses definite foreknowledge as its basis. You would then have a true premise to work with.

Don't need one. As I already stated, LFW by itself isn't scientifically demonstrable.

I'll explain:

1) I could say that A = I will go to Wendy's(your proof and definite foreknowledge)
2) I could say that A = I might go to Wendy's(open theism)

Am I able to do 'A' at time Z and maintain the truth of LFW? (Yes.)
Am I able to do '~A' at time Z and maintain the truth of LFW? (Yes#1. No#2)

You completely lost me there. The fact that going to Wendy's is one of my choices doesn't become false because I don't choose it.

1)Am I able to not go to Wendy's for lunch and maintain LFW? Yes.
2)Am I able to not maybe go to Wendy's for lunch and maintain LFW? No.

Again, this is simply incorrect. #2 only states that going to Wendy's is an option that I may choose. If I don't go there, that doesn't change the fact that I was able to do so.

Does 'not maybe' make going to Wendy's a certainty? Or if we introduce 'A' as I may go to Wendy's for lunch, then 2)I may not go to Wendy's for lunch and maintain LFW. Both ideas defeat LFW. So your starting premise must be definitely known beforehand to prove you are able to do otherwise.

Both A (going to Wendy's) and ~A (not going to Wendy's) are possible. I may choose them. The fact that I don't choose one doesn't change those truths. I could have done either and maintained the truth of LFW.

I think you're trying to equate your problem of one option being definite with LFW's statement that neither are definite, but both are possible.

Muz
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Hi everyone,


Certainly, and I agree that God can bring about human choices. This contradicts a principle in the Open View that such choices cannot be known.

Incorrect. Humans can be influenced to freely make particular choices without definite foreknowledge.

So these, then:

Revelation 9:20 The rest of mankind that were not killed by these plagues still did not repent ...

Anyone that God does not draw cannot come to Him (John 6:44-45)

Revelation 11:13 and the survivors were terrified and gave glory to the God of heaven.

Group dynamics. People in groups are far easier to predict than individuals.

Revelation 16:9 They were seared by the intense heat and they cursed the name of God, who had control over these plagues, but they refused to repent and glorify him.

Same as Rev 11:13

But these are (free, so OVT would say) human choices.

Yup.

Well, let’s be zealous in this matter, “strive earnestly to enter the narrow gate.” But yes, I cannot demand salvation.

Of course not. You're guilty. But that doesn't answer the question: Will you obey the God of the universe because He is the God of the universe, and have faith in His to do what is righteous and just? Or do you demand that He guarantee you something first?

John did, I would say: 1 John 3:8 The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work.

LOL... John is right in the middle of his diatribe about those who are of God no longer sin, but are righteous.

1 John 3:9 Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God.​

John is referring to the sanctification in out lives that should result from our salvation, no longer doing the works of the devil, but works of righteousness as a result of Christ's propitiation.

So then did he come for this purpose and fail? If the devil does accomplish some of his aim to steal, kill and destroy? And propitiation, and judgment, do not change this aspect of the devil accomplishing some of his purpose.

Do you believe that God will ultimately judge all mankind and the devil and all his angels, and that they will ultimately be thrown into the lake of fire?

I don't think that's what the Devil's purpose was.

This is the Open View.

Choice 1: Heinous evil is man's will (OV)
Choice 2: Heinous evil is God's will (Calvinism)

I like choice 1 better.

Nor I. But what of being required to allow evil you would rather not have, in order to bring human happiness? I think the question is still to be pressed, in that case. Should there be any suffering that is regrettable, and a real loss, in order to have a paradise? This is the ends justifying the means, it does seem.

No. It doesn't. There is no justice in killing anyone to make everyone else happy. Only one who lays down their life willingly for another is just.

Muz
 

RobE

New member
Clete said:
You know Rob when I say things like I just said, usually I am just trying to insult you because I find you to be one of the most distasteful people I've ever come across but this time I'm just stating the truth. I sincerely cannot tell for sure whether you are getting any closer to getting this or not! If I were you, I would find that to be embarrassing.

I don't find it embarrassing at all. Let me speak plainly. I can find NO references to this 'qualitative'/'quantitative' thinking within reputable Christian thinking. Is this a new methodology employed by modernists essentially exhalting some of God's attributes over the others? This is my concern. I'm listening to what you are saying, but it appears to me that open theism and it's rationales are the challengers in this debate and are, therefore, somewhat handicapped because of the lack of historical support. In addition, open theism's position as 'challenger' firmly places the entire burden of proof upon them which many here forget.

I am not a theologian, nor am I a would-be theologian so I must find support for ideas from within the accepted thinking of Traditional Christianity. I am not qualified to answer many of the questions that are put to me, so often my responses my seem unresponsive because I'm simply trying to understand this 'new' language you are speaking. Quantitative vs. qualitative for example. My first question was 'what does this mean'. Of course, your response was that I should 'intuitively know', but how could I since it's new thinking?

As far as you finding me 'distasteful', I am shocked to hear it. Of all those on TOL, I expected you the most likely to appreciate that I don't simply bend over and take every argument presented to me as truth --- because that would be truly dishonest. I'm sure if you knew me, you wouldn't find me so. It does require work to convince me since I have no desire to be 'part of the gang' or to simply 'go along with the group' when my beliefs are at stake. Anyway, back to the discussion.....

Which one's are necessary Rob? To be a 'good quality' person as you put it, which of the attributes you listed are necessary and which are not?

I've already answered this:

Would I say a good quality person must be righteous, knowledgeable, strong, merciful, loving, charitable......? Obviously not. These are all good qualities, but to be a 'good quality' person; you need not possess them all. Your 'goodness' would be described by only some of your qualities, not all of them. Just as your intelligence would be described by some of your qualities, not all of them.

What could be a 'good quality' of an evil man? Could an evil man also contain mercy or power to a point? Is their good and evil in every man simultaneously? I understand that you want me to focus on what qualities help define righteousness and call those superior to the other qualities, but indeed they are not superior in the sense that you are presenting them. They are all integral to each other especially when speaking of our Lord. It is true that righteousness doesn't need strength or knowledge to exist, just as knowledge doesn't need righteousness or mercy to exist. This doesn't mean that righteousness takes a 'back seat' to knowledge; because they are both 'good qualities' with merits of their own.

I'm going to refrain from claiming that you believe righteousness is foundational to all of God's qualities because you keep denying that I know what you think. I will, however, remind you of your response that pointed out that that each quality exists independently. It's the combination of these qualities which express God's essence.

Until that last little paragraph, I would have said no but now I'll reserve judgment until you answer that last question I just asked, then we'll see.

Thanks for the opportunity.
 

RobE

New member
Because I'm not stating what I WILL do. I'm stating what I MIGHT do, an option.

Don't need one. As I already stated, LFW by itself isn't scientifically demonstrable.

Nor logically demonstrable, apparently. I didn't ask for a demonstration of the ability this time. I simply asked for a logical proof which didn't have to assume foreknowledge to be true. Your proof does require this. Sorry if you don't see it.

Rob
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Nor logically demonstrable, apparently. I didn't ask for a demonstration of the ability this time. I simply asked for a logical proof which didn't have to assume foreknowledge to be true. Your proof does require this. Sorry if you don't see it.

Rob

OK, definition time:

Are you referring to DEFINITE foreknowledge (the idea that something WILL CERTAINLY happen), or are you simply referring to the idea that we can know some of the possibilities of what we may be able to do at some point in the future?

Muz
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I don't find it embarrassing at all.
Which is precisely why I find you to be so distasteful a person.

Let me speak plainly. I can find NO references to this 'qualitative'/'quantitative' thinking within reputable Christian thinking.
And so your standard is "reputable Christian thinking" rather than the plain teaching of Scripture which I have quoted to you in quantity and plain reason which you have conceded large portions of yourself.

Yet another reason I find you to be so distasteful a person.

Is this a new methodology employed by modernists essentially exhalting some of God's attributes over the others?
Is the book of Psalms new? In fact I believe it is about 1000 years older than Christianity itself!

This is my concern. I'm listening to what you are saying, but it appears to me that open theism and it's rationales are the challengers in this debate and are, therefore, somewhat handicapped because of the lack of historical support. In addition, open theism's position as 'challenger' firmly places the entire burden of proof upon them which many here forget.
I'm perfectly comfortable with the burden of proof Rob. How much more proof do you want? I've quoted Scripture repeatedly, all of which you have ignored. And you've admitted that things like strength and knowledge do not make a person better than another. What other proof could be presented?

I am not a theologian, nor am I a would-be theologian so I must find support for ideas from within the accepted thinking of Traditional Christianity.
This is an intentional lie. You are very definitely a theologian. Not a good one and certainly not a professional one but you are a theologian nonetheless and you very well know it. It would not be possible to engage these discussions otherwise.

I am not qualified to answer many of the questions that are put to me, so often my responses my seem unresponsive because I'm simply trying to understand this 'new' language you are speaking.
This is another lie. If this were true you would simply ask me to clarify or to restate the question some how. But you don't do that. What you do is ignore the context of the question and pretend like I've asked something totally different that what I've asked so as to shift the subject to a topic with which you are more comfortable. It's called intellectual dishonesty. When you see intuitively that you are being led to a conclusion you don't like, you arbitrarily change direction. It is a sign of an unrepentant heart which loves its theology more than the truth.

Quantitative vs. qualitative for example. My first question was 'what does this mean'. Of course, your response was that I should 'intuitively know', but how could I since it's new thinking?
It isn't new thinking Rob! I'm not speaking in code here. Quantity means how much and quality means how good. It's the same meaning that the words had the first time you used them way back in 1st grade (or younger). If you think that what I'm talking about is difficult to understand its only because you are trying to make it difficult.

As far as you finding me 'distasteful', I am shocked to hear it.
No you're not. Stop lying Rob! Sheesh!

Of all those on TOL, I expected you the most likely to appreciate that I don't simply bend over and take every argument presented to me as truth --- because that would be truly dishonest.
I agree that simply accepting whatever anyone said without examination would be just as intellectually dishonest as you are being by doing the opposite which is rejecting anything you don't already believe and refusing to acknowledge when a sound argument has been made that refutes those beliefs.

I'm sure if you knew me, you wouldn't find me so.
I'm not! Are you saying that in real life that you are somehow magically tranformed into a person who knows how to think and is willing to do so honestly and accept the conclusions that sound reason and the Scripture lead you too?

Yeah right!

It does require work to convince me since I have no desire to be 'part of the gang' or to simply 'go along with the group' when my beliefs are at stake. Anyway, back to the discussion.....
Now this sentiment I can appreciate! Do you think I like being the only Open Theist that I know in my entire city? Try finding an Mid Acts Dispensational Open Theist in your town sometime, you won't find one. You want stress? You want to feel anything other than like you're "part of the gang"? Try becoming an Mid Acts Dispensational Open Theist and see how you feel when nearly every sermon you hear turns your stomach. Try realizing that while not ever haven darkened the door of a seminary you know for certain that you understand the gospel message better than every pastor in your town. Don't even talk to me about not taking the easy road. You have no idea what you're talking about.

I've already answered this:

Would I say a good quality person must be righteous, knowledgeable, strong, merciful, loving, charitable......? Obviously not. These are all good qualities, but to be a 'good quality' person; you need not possess them all. Your 'goodness' would be described by only some of your qualities, not all of them. Just as your intelligence would be described by some of your qualities, not all of them.
Which of them are the "some of them" you are referring too? The underlined portion of your quote is what prompted the question Rob! What planet are you on?

You give a whole list of various attributes and then say only some of those attributes are needed to be a "good quality person". Which one's? Which are necessary for being good and which are not?

What could be a 'good quality' of an evil man? Could an evil man also contain mercy or power to a point? Is their good and evil in every man simultaneously? I understand that you want me to focus on what qualities help define righteousness and call those superior to the other qualities, but indeed they are not superior in the sense that you are presenting them.
You see what I mean Rob? You are dishonest. You just admitted that you understand the question I am asking and you know that you cannot answer it without proving everything you've been arguing over the last few days wrong and so what do you do? You refuse to answer? That isn't honest Rob! That isn't being difficult to persuade away from your beliefs. That's being impossible to persuade away from your beliefs! I've led you step by step by step to the water and you now refuse to drink and take pride in your thirst! That's foolishness Rob. You are a fool.

They are all integral to each other especially when speaking of our Lord.
NO THEY ARE NOT!
Not when you are talking in the context of QUALITY!!!!!!!!!!!

Stop changing the subject! Not even one full paragraph goes by and you lose focus on the whole discussion! You just got through saying and even underlining the notion that not only of these characteristics are needed to be a quality person. YOU JUST GOT THROUGH SAYING THAT!!! And now you flip over like a pan cake and say the opposite!

It is true that righteousness doesn't need strength or knowledge to exist, just as knowledge doesn't need righteousness or mercy to exist. This doesn't mean that righteousness takes a 'back seat' to knowledge; because they are both 'good qualities' with merits of their own.
Now you flip flop again! Inside of a single sentence! :bang:

You cannot have it both ways Rob! Either strength and knowledge makes you better than the next guy or it doesn't. Which is it? All other things being equal, if you are know more than your neighbor, are you therefore a better (i.e. higher quality) person than your neighbor? Yes or no.

I'm going to refrain from claiming that you believe righteousness is foundational to all of God's qualities because you keep denying that I know what you think.
Do you just skip over the Bible verses I quote or what?
What I believe is what the Bible plainly states. Righteousness is the foundation of God's authority. That's a great big problem for your theology Rob. You are incapable of thinking it through sufficiently to figure it out but we'll get there one day, maybe.

I will, however, remind you of your response that pointed out that that each quality exists independently. It's the combination of these qualities which express God's essence.
This is not in dispute and is therefore entirely irrelevant!
We've digressed to more than a day ago at this point. :bang:
We're back to the single baby step stage. Focus exclusively on the following question...

Which attributes are required to make a person a "good quality person" Rob.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Philetus

New member
Philetus: My faith is in the triune God, not the future.
I know for sure that God will change His mind and alter the future in some ways based on contingencies built into His creation. That won't prevent God from doing what He Promises.
My faith is based on the resurrection of Jesus (a settled historical fact) and the present reality of the Spirit (also a fact) and the expressed determination that God will in Christ come and get me so that where He is I may be also. Something to look forward to! ... don't you think?
God knows the future as HIS PLAN.
Glad you didn't quit just because somebody nang-reped you!
I don't even know what blind faith is.
P


QUOTE=Nang;1542361]My, that sounds lofty . . .but you said men are supposed to "follow" Him into the future. How can one "follow," or run the race, or endure to the end, if they don't care?
Where did you get the notion “if they don’t care”?
Who said anything about ‘not caring?
You are really pulling things out of thin air.


What exactly has God promised?
:doh:

What historical evidence do you have that Jesus actually resurrected?
Do you mean other than His actual living presence?


What proof do you have that the Holy Spirit is present? Can you see Him?
No. Like Jesus said to 'Israel's teacher' on a dark knight: like the wind, Nic, you see the evidence. I see the evidence.
Ya want'a talk about getting back into the womb next, Nang?

Where is this Godly "determination" expressed?
da, b-i-b-l-e, yep, that's da book for me ...


You said you did not place any faith in the future, so on what basis do you have something to look forward to?
I'm going to treat that like a serious question, not for your sake but my own (because I can't really believe you were all that serious when you posted this list of questions.)
ah...er...aah... an empty tomb maybe ... a living relationship with a living, eternal being. I'm far less focused on where I'm going to spend eternity than who I'm going to spend eternity with. It keeps me grounded and focused in the present. I think very little about following Jesus to Heaven. Following Jesus in the world today requires the vast majority of my attention and all the help from the Spirit I can get. I'm never disappointed in His performance. The more I learn to trust Jesus here today, the less I question His ability to get me to the future He and our Father are preparing for US to share. Besides, Learning to see Jesus here and now takes care of that question that both the righteous and unrighteous will ask when they stand before the King, "Lord, when did we see you hungry, thirsty, sick, homeless ....?" To which Jesus will reply, "Hey, that was me."
I spend little energy on what I will eat, or what I will wear. The future will take care of itself. I'm just enjoying the journey and the company ... today. That's all the assurance I need of God's ability to handle the future.​

Where do you get the notion God has a "plan?"

How's this for a start:
Nang posted: "For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them." Ephesians 2:10

Sounds like a plan to me.
NANG posted: IOW,s when Christians choose to obey God and serve Him in righteousness, this is evidence of Godly grace and power that has granted particular sinners repentance (II Tim. 2:25)

Repentance has nothing to do with human will-power or choices. Repentance from sin is a gift of God. (Also see Acts 5:31, 11:18)

Which is it Nang? Either Christians choose or they don’t. Stick to your guns or open both eyes. I have no idea what you mean by “blind faith” (a pejorative term that gets tossed out when somebody can't think of anything constructive to say or ask) but I do know what blind theology looks and sounds like.

Philetus
 

RobE

New member
This is not in dispute and is therefore entirely irrelevant!
We've digressed to more than a day ago at this point. :bang:
We're back to the single baby step stage. Focus exclusively on the following question...

Which attributes are required to make a person a "good quality person" Rob.

Resting in Him,
Clete

In my opinion this question is too generic and unanswerable because of the possible definitions of "good quality person". My answer to your insistence is that righteousness and all that it entails are what I consider makes a "good quality person". I think we can proceed with the following statement.


Do you just skip over the Bible verses I quote or what?
What I believe is what the Bible plainly states. Righteousness is the foundation of God's authority. That's a great big problem for your theology Rob. You are incapable of thinking it through sufficiently to figure it out but we'll get there one day, maybe.

I haven't skipped anything. Righteousness is a foundation of God's authority, but what makes righteousness take precedence over His authority? This in my mind is the question.

An example would be a comparison of righteousness and knowledge.

Is God righteousness foundational to His knowledge? Is knowledge foundational to His authority?
 

RobE

New member
OK, definition time:

Are you referring to DEFINITE foreknowledge (the idea that something WILL CERTAINLY happen), or are you simply referring to the idea that we can know some of the possibilities of what we may be able to do at some point in the future?

Muz

As did your proof: I am agent A, Z is 11am this morning, and 'A' is going to Wendy's to buy lunch.

This doesn't say " ....and 'A' is might be going to Wendy's for lunch."

Your original assumes as known that you will go to lunch at Wendy's before the fact of going.

Therefore, my claim that you must assume EDF to prove your ability to do otherwise is proven true.

If you insert the word 'may or might' then your proof fails on this basis....

Muz said:
The problem is that "A" is undefined in his test. It shifts based upon my future unknown choice. That's why the test is invalid: There's no standard to say whether I did otherwise or not.

Here's the link.....Post where Muz defines the condition of a valid test of the ability to do otherwise.

EDF.
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
This doesn't say " ....and 'A' is might be going to Wendy's for lunch."

Nor does it say "I WILL go to Wendy's for lunch." It simply states what the action is without the assumption of "will" or "may." "Going to Wendy's for lunch."

Your original assumes as known that you will go to lunch at Wendy's before the fact of going.

Incorrect. You inserted that.

Therefore, my claim that you must assume EDF to prove your ability to do otherwise is proven true.

If you insert the word 'may or might' then your proof fails on this basis....

The demonstration fails, yes, because we cannot tell beforehand what will happen. The proof does not, because the ability to do A or ~A is shown, and does not have any impediments.

Muz
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
Which proof texts do you use to show that we cannot chose between chocolate or vanilla,

Man was created by God under the Law of God. Man was created in the image of God, with consciousness of the Law and possessing a moral agency (will) to obey the Law. Man was not created with permission to break God's Law; therefore his will is not totally free, and certainly not designed to function autonomous from the will of God.

Thus, man is a volitional creature, who makes choices and decisions all the time.

As long as eating ice cream is not against the Law of God, man is free to choose to eat ice cream and decide what flavor he wants to indulge in.



between adultery or fidelity?

This is a matter of Law. The Law does not permit adultery. If a man chooses to commit adultery, he has broken the Law of God, and sinned. A man can choose to commit adultery, but not freely. He will pay legal and eternal consequences for his actions.

Free will is self-evident. The Fall of Lucifer and Adam illustrate this truth.

It should be obvious to you that it is the word "free", or the description of LFW that I believe is a fallacy.

No man is "free" when living under the Law and orders of God. A man either serves God in faithful obedience, or a man serves himself, death, and the devil. A man is a servant of one or the other; a slave to sin or a slave to righteousness. No man is free to do only what he wants.

And no man, since the fall of Adam, is free to escape bondage to sin, death, and the devil by his own human capacities, because all men are spiritually dead to the things of God, cursed with enmity against God, and totally corrupted in heart, mind, body, and soul.

It takes the free gift of grace from God, to escape this bondage, and be adopted into the family of God; whereby one can willfully serve their Father in righteousness.

Nang
 

RobE

New member
Nor does it say "I WILL go to Wendy's for lunch." It simply states what the action is without the assumption of "will" or "may." "Going to Wendy's for lunch."

So which is it(in order to maintain the validity of your argument per your own statement)?

Muz's proof: I am agent A, Z is 11am this morning, and 'A' is going to Wendy's to buy lunch.

I would say that the word 'is' states that you will go to lunch. How do you interpret it to mean that you may go to lunch.

Incorrect. You inserted that.

Not incorrect. You made the statement before you went to Little Caesars didn't you?

The demonstration fails, yes, because we cannot tell beforehand what will happen. The proof does not, because the ability to do A or ~A is shown, and does not have any impediments.

According to your own definition the proof fails because "there's no standard to say whether I(you) did otherwise or not."

Muz said:
The problem is that "A" is undefined in his test. It shifts based upon my future unknown choice. That's why the test is invalid: There's no standard to say whether I did otherwise or not.

That is unless it's possible for "A" to remain undefined and my prior test was indeed valid. I doubt if you honestly believe this! :chuckle:

What's it gonna be, Muz?
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
So which is it(in order to maintain the validity of your argument per your own statement)?

Muz's proof: I am agent A, Z is 11am this morning, and 'A' is going to Wendy's to buy lunch.

I would say that the word 'is' states that you will go to lunch. How do you interpret it to mean that you may go to lunch.

"is" does not mean "will." It's a statement of what "A" will represent in

Agent X at time Z may do A or ~A.

Thus, the "may" comes in the statement of what LFW is.

"A" is just represents what I will substitute for 'A' in the definition.

Not incorrect. You made the statement before you went to Little Caesars didn't you?

But I didn't say I "will" go. I said I "MAY" go.

According to your own definition the proof fails because "there's no standard to say whether I(you) did otherwise or not."

But the standard, in this case, isn't whether I did otherwise, but whether I may do A and whether I may do ~A. Both were clearly demonstrated.


That is unless it's possible for "A" to remain undefined and my prior test was indeed valid. I doubt if you honestly believe this! :chuckle:

The problem is that you're still stuck on this idea of "otherwise", when we're talking about "may do A or ~A."

Muz
 

RobE

New member
"is" does not mean "will." It's a statement of what "A" will represent in

Agent X at time Z may do A or ~A.

Thus, the "may" comes in the statement of what LFW is.

"A" is just represents what I will substitute for 'A' in the definition.

Sure. Don't you mean "It's a statement of what "A" might represent, "just represents what I might substitute for "A", an so forth. In your example is "A" undefined? If so then how are you able to say that the argument you made is valid when you consider:

MUZ said:
The problem is that "A" is undefined in his test. It shifts based upon my future unknown choice. That's why the test is invalid: There's no standard to say whether I did otherwise or not.

But I didn't say I "will" go. I said I "MAY" go.

I am agent A, Z is 11am this morning, and 'A' is going to Wendy's to buy lunch.

Notice you are agent A and A is going to Wendy's(not might). Hang on to those straws.

MUZ said:
Well, 'A' was going to Wendy's and I did otherwise.

How do I know you did otherwise if 'A' was maybe going to Wendys instead of was for sure going to Wendys. I know you understand this.

But the standard, in this case, isn't whether I did otherwise, but whether I may do A and whether I may do ~A. Both were clearly demonstrated.

They weren't both clearly demonstrated unless you assume foreknowledge in the case of doing ~A.

The problem is that you're still stuck on this idea of "otherwise", when we're talking about "may do A or ~A."

LFW is the ability to do or do otherwise or; if you prefer, 'A' or ~'A'. Right?

We should probably re-examine my own claim at this point.....

Either;

LFW's definition is untrue because it is unverifiable because of the lack of the assumed foreknowledge,(which you are unable to do)

or

LFW's definition assumes that foreknowledge is present and therefore is able to make the statement 'able to do otherwise' and rejects a conflict between foreknowledge and free will as being true.​
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Sure. Don't you mean "It's a statement of what "A" might represent, "just represents what I might substitute for "A", an so forth. In your example is "A" undefined? If so then how are you able to say that the argument you made is valid when you consider:







Notice you are agent A and A is going to Wendy's(not might). Hang on to those straws.

No, the agent is X.

How do I know you did otherwise if 'A' was maybe going to Wendys instead of was for sure going to Wendys. I know you understand this.

Because going to Wendy's was an option.

They weren't both clearly demonstrated unless you assume foreknowledge in the case of doing ~A.

Incorrect. 'A' was simply one of the options available.

LFW is the ability to do or do otherwise or; if you prefer, 'A' or ~'A'. Right?

the latter definition is preferred, as you tend to load "otherwise" with things that it doesn't imply.

We should probably re-examine my own claim at this point.....

Either;

LFW's definition is untrue because it is unverifiable because of the lack of the assumed foreknowledge,(which you are unable to do)

Incorrect. We do not need to know what will happen in the future in order to show that an individual is able to choose 'A' or '~A.'

or

LFW's definition assumes that foreknowledge is present and therefore is able to make the statement 'able to do otherwise' and rejects a conflict between foreknowledge and free will as being true.

Again, incorrect, mainly because you are unable to grasp the concepts of how LFW is expressed... (Or, more likely, are unwilling to do so, because then you'd have to admit that you were wrong.)

Muz
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
In my opinion this question is too generic and unanswerable because of the possible definitions of "good quality person". My answer to your insistence is that righteousness and all that it entails are what I consider makes a "good quality person". I think we can proceed with the following statement.
That's it? You listed mercy and power and several others as well.

Does one have to be powerful to be righteous?

Yes or no.

I haven't skipped anything.
Of course you have Rob. Otherwise I wouldn't be having to reminding you of it and repeating myself over and over again.

Righteousness is a foundation of God's authority, but what makes righteousness take precedence over His authority? This in my mind is the question.
Well I think one really good aspect that causes righteousness to take precedence is the fact that it speaks to a person's quality! :duh:

But even if that isn't the only reason or even if you reject that as a reason, it doesn't matter. At this point you have lost the debate because you've conceded the foundation of the Open View hermeneutic. The Settled View places God sovereignty at the pinnacle position or at the very least demotes righteousness to its level and thus interprets Biblical passages in the erroneous light. The Open View places its emphasis on God righteousness "and all that it entails" as you put it, including the fact that He is personal, relational, dynamic, loving, etc., which yields the opposite conclusion on a great many Biblical question, not the least of which is whether or not we have a genuine ability to do or to do otherwise.

An example would be a comparison of righteousness and knowledge.

Is God righteousness foundational to His knowledge? Is knowledge foundational to His authority?
Irrelevant.

You must of A.D.D. or something Rob. You simply cannot keep your eye on the ball. Stop going, or attempting to go, down every conceivable rabbit trail and take this a single step at a time. Or is it that you are afraid of where sound reason will take you?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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