If you consider determination coercion.
The point is that open theism's position on determination amounts to coercion.
A free will decision, by definition, cannot be certainly know before it is made.
Who's definition. Certainly this has been argued since the dawn of man.
1) Libertarian free will requires that agent X in circumstance Y at time Z be able to do A or ~A. (Defintion of LFW)
2) Exhaustive, definite foreknowledge requires that all decisions be eternally known.
3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X will do A at time Z.
4) Thus, X can only do A at time Z, (2,3).
5) Thus, X cannot do ~A at time Z. (4)
6) Thus, X does not have LFW (5,1)
Note that this does NOT state that EDF coerces anything. It simply states that LFW is logically impossible in the presence of EDF.
Allright, stay with me for a moment. A modal fallacy occurs in this proof
by...inserting...a...necessary...condition...when...none...is...called...for!
Without that fallacy in modality the proof doesn't help your position.
An example:
"If Paul has two sons and a daughter, then he has to have at least two children."
True or False?
False. Paul need not have any children.
While it is true that Paul does (in fact) have at least two children (he has three), it is false that he has to have three. He doesn't have to have any. He doesn't have to have one. He doesn't have to have two. He doesn't have to have three. He doesn't have to have four. Etc., etc. Put another way: There is no necessity in Paul's having any children, let alone having three. There is no necessity for Paul (just as there is no necessity for anyone else) to have at least two children.
4) Thus, X can only do A at time Z, (2,3).
Where does your proof prove that x can 'only' do A.
It's not in the supporting premise - 3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X will do A at time Z.
It's only eternally known that x will do A, not that x must do a, or the that x will have to do a. If you are saying any of these things then coercion exists(notice I didn't say must).
Sencond Example: Originally Posted by themuzicman
Just because God CAN change His mind, doesn't mean He WILL.
An excellent example BTW.
Since you are unable to explain the mechanism by which you believe decisions are foreknown, that remains unaddressed.
The mechanisms are the natural law, environment, and nature of the individual being known completely by God. God is smart, really smart. If BF Skinner is able to figure out things about human nature, etc...; then how much more is God able. He created man, his evironment, nature, well everything! Could BF Skinner make a new element? Energy? God's mind is vast. If man is able to know one thing about his fellow man, then I submit God is able to know all things about us. Do you think for a moment that man is more complex and harder to understand than the entire cosmos?
However, we don't definitely know things beforehand. We have a pretty good idea, but unless something is following a scientific law that we've accurately described, we can't definitely state that ANYTHING will happen.
Well our 'pretty good idea' is a sure thing with enough knowledge. Natural law is scientific law. We just don't know that much about man's nature - like the Creator does.