ChristisKing
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Jerry Shugart said:ChristisKing,
Why do you question the way that I attempt to prove that the "ransom" was for "all men" everywhere by using different epistles?
Because you conviently ignore the fact that 90% of the examples from Scripture that I directly provided to you that use the phrase "all men" or "all flesh" clearly refer to only a group of people and not every single person on earth. (Sorry to be away so long....work has really been piling up.)
Jerry Shugart said:Let us go to the first use of the term "all men" in this discourse:
"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned"(Ro.5:12).
Does this not refer to "all men" everywhere?
Of course it does.
As Ronald Reagan used to say, "there you go again!" :chuckle: You find a verse where "all men" means every single person on earth and immediately superimpose that meaning everywhere "all men" is used in Scripture.
I though we already went over this lesson? Don't make me copy those 90% verses again where "all men" clearly does not mean every single person on earth! :BillyBob:
Paul is writing to the elect, to the "beloved of God, called to be saints (v.7)" He is teaching them that they were once enemies of God because they are all sinners. He says, "But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." (Rom 5:8) and "...when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God...(5:10)."
In verse 12 Paul is just proving his point that since all our sinners so were you "beloved of God, called to be saints" sinners. Paul then returns to talking about the "beloved of God, called to be saints" by saying "For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they (the 'beloved of God, called to be saints') which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ."
He continues talking about only the "beloved of God, called to be saints" in verse 18, "...even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life." The "all men" are the same "beloved of God, called to be saints," because they/we are the only ones justified who were once "enemies!"
Jerry Shugart said:If the "many" are the elect,then how do you explain the following words of the Lord Jesus and Paul in regard to who the "ransom" is for:
"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many"(Mt.20:28).
I explain it to mean that He gave His life only for the elect, His sheep, and not for anyone else. He gave His life for many, not for all! Just like He said He would:
JOH 10:11 I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep.
JOH 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
Jerry Shugart said:If "many" refers to the "elect",then what is the meaning of "all" in the following verse?:
"Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time"(1Tim.2:6).
It means the same thing it meant a week ago when we started this discussion, it means for all types and classes of people "For kings, and for all that are in authority;" as defined in verse 2, that verse you keep omitting.