*Originally posted by Freak
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*Originally posted by Freak
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Originally posted by Knight
Sorry, but that isn't what the text says.
God talks of Israel as the Vineyard and He talks of how He prepared the Vineyard with nothing but the finest ingredients....
Isaiah 5:2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones, And planted it with the choicest vine. He built a tower in its midst, And also made a winepress in it.
So, after preparing His vineyard (in the way He did) at THAT POINT He expected "good grapes".
Isaiah 5:2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones, And planted it with the choicest vine. He built a tower in its midst, And also made a winepress in it; So He expected it to bring forth good grapes,.
But, later.... it brought forth "wild grapes".
Isaiah 5:2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones, And planted it with the choicest vine. He built a tower in its midst, And also made a winepress in it; So He expected it to bring forth good grapes, But it brought forth wild grapes.
God restates His argument...
Isaiah 5:4 What more could have been done to My vineyard That I have not done in it? Why then, when I expected it to bring forth good grapes, Did it bring forth wild grapes?
Therefore, I appreciate your response but your argument is in error. This has nothing to do with present knowledge as you assert. This chapter has EVERYTHING to do with God's expectations of Israel. If God has complete foreknowledge it would not make any sense for Him to expect something that is NOT a part of His foreknowledge.
Originally posted by Knight
Sorry, but that isn't what the text says.
God talks of Israel as the Vineyard and He talks of how He prepared the Vineyard with nothing but the finest ingredients....
Isaiah 5:2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones, And planted it with the choicest vine. He built a tower in its midst, And also made a winepress in it.
So, after preparing His vineyard (in the way He did) at THAT POINT He expected "good grapes".
Isaiah 5:2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones, And planted it with the choicest vine. He built a tower in its midst, And also made a winepress in it; So He expected it to bring forth good grapes,.
But, later.... it brought forth "wild grapes".
Isaiah 5:2 He dug it up and cleared out its stones, And planted it with the choicest vine. He built a tower in its midst, And also made a winepress in it; So He expected it to bring forth good grapes, But it brought forth wild grapes.
God restates His argument...
Isaiah 5:4 What more could have been done to My vineyard That I have not done in it? Why then, when I expected it to bring forth good grapes, Did it bring forth wild grapes?
Therefore, I appreciate your response but your argument is in error. This has nothing to do with present knowledge as you assert. This chapter has EVERYTHING to do with God's expectations of Israel. If God has complete foreknowledge it would not make any sense for Him to expect something that is NOT a part of His foreknowledge.
Israel is not Isaiah's "Vinyard". Israel is God's Vineyard.Originally posted by NuMessJew
I hate to spoil your fun but it is notGod speaking here.
Isa. 5:1
Now will I sing to my wellbeloved a song of my beloved touching his vineyard. My wellbeloved hath a vineyard in a very fruitful hill:
It is the Prophet!
NuMessJew
Originally posted by Knight
Israel is not Isaiah's "Vinyard". Israel is God's Vineyard.
Isaiah 5:7 For the vineyard of the LORD of hosts is the house of Israel.
Don't p*** down my back and tell me it's raining. Here is what you wrote:I wasn't accusing you of anything. Clearly you misread my question to you.
This is an insulting question. It is disrespectful, undeserving of an answer. It belies your attitude towards me, someone you don't know. Ever heard of "benefit of the doubt?" Apparently that benefit lasts 3 posts with you. After only 3 posts, you're ready to ask, "Do you think that God lies?"Nihilo, do you think God would lie to get a point accross?
I don't.
Consider this your final warning, if you wish to participate here at TheologyOnLine you will need to avoid offensive language.Originally posted by Nihilo
Knight,
You say: Don't **** down my back and tell me it's raining.
If God were a statue or an inanimate object you might have a point.Originally posted by Freak
A change for a perfect being (God) must be a change for the worst since a perfect God could not change for the better-for He is perfect.
Originally posted by Nihilo
Knight is there a list of offensive words I can refer to? I don't want to get booted on a technicality.
But, if you think the "why" question is rhetorical, and that we cannot therefore properly infer much about God from it, then why so the rest of the parable? The parable is clearly not a story about a vineyard-owner and his grapes, but about God and his people.
My friend, any change in a perfect God-including a "changed mind"-would mean God changed to something less than perfect since perfection implies completeness, lacking no thing. Change for a perfect Being must be a change for the worst since a perfect God could not change for the better. A "changing perfect God" is, therefore, a contradiction and fails to describe an all-powerful, all-knowing, everywhere-present God. Think about it!
That is why God is not powerful enough to make a rock so big He can’t move it
Originally posted by philosophizer
I'll ask you, is everything that God says a prophecy?
There is a great deal of allegorical inferrence in the "Song of the Vineyard," but there is a difference between prophecy and persuasion. Nihilo had a good point when he said,
If you acknowledge that one part of the passage is rhetorical, where and why do you draw the line that separates that from the rest of the passage?
Is the job of a prophet only to prophesy future events? Can a prophet not also be a tool of God to direct His people and guide their path? You ask if God would lie to get his point across. What makes you think He is lying in this situation or any situation? Your answer must be that every time God opens His mouth, a prophecy comes out. Under that premise, God would be lying.
I assert that your premise is flawed. God can also persuade, which is different than prophesying. Your answer to this flawed premise is to dull down the definitions of both prophecy and God. You have redefined prophecy as the God-given knowledge of His best guess. And you have redefined God as one who must make these guesses. You have set up a convenient system where God is the presently most informed so His predictions will always be right, even if they are only guesses.
Freak also added,
He descibes a paradox. The response to this has been that denying God the ability to change retracts from His completeness and thereby makes Him imperfect. We have a battle of the paradoxes. Earlier in this thread, Lion presented this example which I have heard many times and wholeheartedly agree with.
Of course God cannot make a rock so big He can't move it. Is this a paradox? Yes. Does it imply God can't do something? Yes. Does it deny God something? In a way, yes.
God has a nature or a state which He is unable to violate. For example, God cannot do evil because his nature is completely good. God cannot lie because his nature is completely truthful. God could not create something He would not have the power to move because He is all-powerful and could not place Himself beneath something that He created.
The difference between your paradox and Freak's paradox is that Freak's denies God an ability for the sake of accepting His power. Yours denies God power for the sake of accepting an ability. In the paradoxes I listed above, I denied God a few abilities to accept His power. This is how we decide which way to go when confronted by these paradoxes. We must take the side that agrees with God's power.
Originally posted by Knight
Let's assume for sake of argument that God knows all of the future in exhaustive detail as you assert.
And at THIS moment He knows that my friend John Doe is not saved.
Let's further assume that God also knows that John Doe will live the next three years of his life rejecting God. Of course God also knows every other detail of John Does life for the next three years as well. God knows.... that in three years John Doe will eventually commit suicide by an overdose of drugs and die an unsaved man on March 3rd 2006.
John Doe knows none of this of course.
Ask yourself: Does John Doe have the ability to make God's "all knowledge" of John's own life for the next three years NOT come to pass?
Can John Doe choose do something otherwsie from God's "all knowledge"?
The question isn't circular in the least.Originally posted by philosophizer
This question is still circular.
My question was a response to what you were saying way back on page two of this thread...It also uses terms like "exhaustive detail" which demonstrate the loaded nature of the question.
But I will answer it.
Of course not.
Please try to understand what "all-knowledge" means. It means ALL KNOWLEDGE. There could be nothing "otherwise" from this. It is knowledge of ALL. It's pretty self explanatory.
This is what I mean when I say that it is circular and that the question doesn't pertain to the situation. The basis of the situation accepts God's "exhaustive" knowledge. This renders the question moot by default. It is a meaningless question.
If you want to argue with my perspective, you've gotta pick a different field. I've already suggested one.
I said that I was "challenging the concept of change" which seems to be the center of the debate. I assert that a being who transcends time is not contained within time's restrictions and the concept of change cannot be attributed. Change is a measure dependent on time. If God exists outside of time and no effects of time can be attributed to Him, then change is something that cannot exist as one of His attributes. Not because change violates our idea of His perfection, but because change violates his eternal and transcendent nature.
I was merely demonstrating that man cannot have a true free-will AND God have exhaustive foreknowledge all at the same time.I am aware that they seem mutually exclusive. I am not saying that both views can exist to us at the same time. I am, however, saying that both views can exist from different points of view at the same time. The view God sees is vastly different than the view we see.
Originally posted by NuMessJew
Where does God say anything? God speaks?
Originally posted by philosophizer
Genesis 3:9 -- But the LORD God called to the man, "Where are you?"
Genesis 3:13 -- Then the LORD God said to the woman, "What is this you have done?" The woman said, "The serpent deceived me, and I ate."
Genesis 8:15-16 -- Then God said to Noah, "Come out of the ark, you and your wife and your sons and their wives.
Exodus 3:12 -- And God said, "I will be with you. And this will be the sign to you that it is I who have sent you: When you have brought the people out of Egypt, you will worship God on this mountain."
Matthew 3:17 -- And a voice from heaven said, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased."
Originally posted by Knight
I was merely demonstrating that man cannot have a true free-will AND God have exhaustive foreknowledge all at the same time.
And apparently we agree.