ARCHIVE:God is NOT an OV'er (He said so)

drdeutsch

New member
Jaltus,
Thank you. That is exactly what I was looking for. A refutation, backed up by evidence. It is exactly that which Geoff can not and does not provide.
Now, Jaltus and Geoff, I can go and study this. I'm no Greek expert, but I do have resources.
You see, Geoff, this is how a theological discussion is supposed to take place. Thesis statement, evidence and support, conclusion. Next person offers refutation, evidence and support, conclusion. Maybe you should start taking some notes from Jaltus instead of just typing "That is complete conjecture."

Thanks again, Jaltus. I'll get back to you as soon as possible. Unfortunately, I'll be away until probably Monday, 8 July. I hope to pick up this discussion then.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 

geoff

New member
DRD,

So, you accept that God destined Christ from the beginning of the world, and that the passion narrative doesnt support the OV, and yet, you then say that this DOESNT mean that God knew (although He destined (planned, and willed)) this to happen?

I give up.
Jaltus, He's all yours.
 

drdeutsch

New member
Geoff,

How many times am I going to have to point this out to you?

I never once accepted that Christ was predestined from the beginning of the world to die on the cross. I said that His crucifixion was part of God's "determined purpose and foreknowledge." When God has foreknowledge of an event, He knows about it before it happens. It does not imply, however much you want it to, that He knows about it from the beginning of the world.

Jaltus makes for a much better discussion than you.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 

geoff

New member
Jaltus is more tolerant of errr... people like you...

You said CLEARLY:
The fact is, Christ's crucifixion was part of God's "determined purpose and foreknowledge." God knew about Christ's crucifixion before it happened.

God KNEW about Christ's crucifixion you said. From or SINCE when? The foundation of the world.

It does not imply, however much you want it to, that He knows about it from the beginning of the world.
Complete contradiction of what you just said (and of Scripture), obviously in order to preserve your presuppositions. You see, we are not just flapping our gums (figuratively) here, we KNOW.
I, personally, dont want the verse to say anything, I am telling you what it says... thats all.
 
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drdeutsch

New member
Geoff,

"Foreknowledge" = Knowledge beforehand.
If God has foreknowledge of an event, He has knowledge of that event before it happens. Again I state: "foreknowledge" of an event implies knowledge of that event before it happens. It does not imply knowledge from a certain time (e.g. from the beginning of the world, from the fall of man, from 2:30 p.m. General Mountain Time on Oct 6. 1857).
If Christ's crucifixion is part of God's "determined purpose and foreknowledge" then God knew about Christ's crucifixion before it happened. Can we say exactly when? No, we can't.

Please don't read meaning that isn't there into the verse.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 

geoff

New member
it doesnt matter if God knew that the time would be 8:45:37... the fact that HE KNEW from the foundation of the world is enough...

no amount of semantic games is going to change it.
 

drdeutsch

New member
Geoff,
You have not proven that "foreknowledge" means "knowledge from the foundation of the world." In fact, you can't prove it. Look in a dictionary. What does foreknowledge mean?
The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language (3rd Ed.) says it is "Knowledge or awareness of something before its existence or occurrence."
That is exactly what I said.
But perhaps we should look at the Greek word.
Prognosis means "forethought." But it derives from Proginosko, which means "to know beforehand. i.e. foresee.
None of these definitions carry the meaning "from the foundation of the world."
Geoff, neither you nor I are Greek scholars, but we can, without a doubt, see the morpheme "pro-" in our own English "pre-." Likewise, we can see the morpheme "gno" in our English word "agnostic." Hence, without being Greek scholars or referring to a Greek dictionary, we can readily see the meaning of the word "foreknowledge."

Geoff, you can carry on this meaningless conversation with yourself. The fact is, you are dodging the issue and have been dodging it. In my opinion, you are an extremely close-minded, very poor theologian, hiding behind Jaltus' excellent work. Now, I have studying to do and I will continue this discussion with Jaltus only. You may comment on whatever you like, but I doubt I will comment on any of your future arguments until you come up with one that is even worth reading.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 

drdeutsch

New member
Jaltus,

Wow. You put up an excellent argument, I must admit. Thank you for that - I had to search really hard to find some valuable info, and I'm still not completely finished. These are just some preliminary findings.

1) proximity, it comes after the lamb instead of before it, which would be the natural position if it were to modify names
when a phrase can modify 2 possible other phrases, it is always taken to go with the closest unless it is nonsensical.
This is absolutely true.

2) text critical work, which clearly shows that the "names" phrase may not be original (it does not appear in many of the oldest manuscripts, such as Aleph), but both the lamb and the foundations phrases are undisputed.
This is where I have a problem, Jaltus. The Codex Sinaiticus [Aleph] is considered by many to be one of the worst MSS in existence. When comparing it to the Textus Receptus, Dean Burgon found that there were 3,392 deflections in the Aleph. There were several hundred or even thousands in the A, B, C, and D Uncials.
Scrivener, in his Full Collation of the Sinaiticus says:
"It must be confessed, indeed, that Codex Sinaiticus abounds with similar errors of eye and pen, to an extent not unparalleled, but happily rather unusual in documents of first-rate importance… Letters, and words, even whole sentences, are frequently written twice over, or begun and immediately canceled; while that gross blunder (Homeoteleuton) whereby a clause is omitted because it happens to end in the same words as the clause preceding it occurs no less than 115 times in the New Testament, though this defect is often supplied by a more recent hand."

Burgon wrote:
"We venture to assure him (Bishop Ellicott), without a particle of hesitation, that Aleph, B and D are three of the most scandalously corrupt copies extant; exhibit the most shamefully mutilated texts which are anywhere to be met with… having become, by whatever process (for their history is wholly unknown), the depositories of the largest amount of fabricated readings, ancient blunders, and intentional perversions of truth… which are discoverable in any known copies of the word of God."

Now, these are only preliminary findings, but it appears to me that the Aleph cannot be trusted 100%. In fact, I understand that it was found in a trash can in a monastary on Mt. Sinai. Perhaps someone put it there for good reason? (Sorry, a little MS joke there) Which brings me to my point: Perhaps, just perhaps, "names" does not appear in these older MSS because they are corrupt. I'm not certain, but it is a possibility. I did find two texts, the Alexandrian and the Byzantine Majority, which have onama [Gk. names] in Rev. 13:8.

This is a small point, however. It appears to me that "from the foundation of the world" doesn't modify "names" but rather "written." It is a prep. phrase describing when this "?" was written. As far as I can tell, almost every text has either "names" or a pronoun, such as "whosoever." Thus, a translation might be "Whosoever was not written from the foundation of the world..."

As far as grammar goes, you've got me. You are absolutely right. The proximity plays a very important part. However, since Rev. 17:8 is indisputable, I still believe, based on the credibility of the MSS, my findings (thus far), and the general Biblical agreement (in my opinion) with the OV, that Rev. 13:8 could be translated "...written since the foundation of the world in the Book of Life of the Lamb slain."

I am not, by any means, ruling out the possibility that apo modifies Lamb. That is basic Greek syntax and cannot be disputed. However, I do feel, based on my current findings, that both of our views can be seen through this verse. Thus, both of our views can be supported.
Of course, there is still a lot of research to be done on this subject, and I hope that you provide some further information to support your view, Jaltus.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 
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Jaltus

New member
Sinaticus was found in the trash because a monk had used it for a letter (writing OVER the Bible) and decided to redo his letter.

How old are the works you are citing? Aleph is considered a much better source, currently, as the majority text has been called into question repeatedly due to some errors (compare with P 46 and P 57 for example, not to mention Beza). Aleph is still hundreds of years older than MT (no, not Masoretic Text, though it would be an accurate statement, hehe).

I would even conjecture that part of the reason that the reading is there is due to the parallel with Rev 17:8. The parallel would be an argument against authenticity, not for it.

Of course, Aland gives it a decent rating (only putting it in brackets, not parentheses), so I am not sure how valid my argument is.

I will not be able to give much better argument until next week when I am back from vacation.

God bless,

Jaltus
 

drdeutsch

New member
Jaltus,

Thank you for your prompt and informative reply.
Again, I am neither a Greek expert, nor do I fully comprehend MSS and ratings and such. I am, however, ready and willing to learn.

I, myself, will be in the Black Hills for the Fourth of July celebration and won't have much time until July 8th. I look forward to picking up this discussion then.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 

jobeth

Member
Geoff,
Although I agree with you that God's foreknowledge of the crucifixion was from the foundation of the world (i.e. Before the fall of man), I'm only interjecting here to sympathize with DrD over the way you have responded to him.

Can't you see that Dr. D is not refuting the claim that God FOREKNEW that Christ would be crucified, but that he is only refuting the notion of WHEN God foreknew?

Did you even read what Dr. D. wrote? I ask because your responses to him don't seem to address his point at all.

So even though I'm anxious for your assertion to win the argument, I'm dissapointed with you for giving our opponent an opportunity to cry foul. When you fail to adequately address their objections, our team loses points. As your friend, I don't want to offend you, but I'm just asking you to be more careful.

1 Pet 3:15 But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear:

Dr. D. wants a REASON why we infer that God FOREKNEW even BEFORE sin had entered the world. Why do you assert that God FOREKNEW Christ would be crucified from BEFORE the fall, rather than more recently, as Dr. D. has suggested?

Dr. D.:

I think this question of when God knew has to do with what we believe about HOW God FOREKNOWS.

Geoff believes that God Foreknows because God is outside of time, so that GOD sees all of time; past, present, and future, as one eternal now. God has complete immediate knowledge of all of time. God does not know contingencies, but only knows exhaustively what will happen. This view implies antecedent EDF. The future is somehow eternally fixed and thus knowable.

You seem to believe that God must wait for events to unfold before He can conclude what must happen as a result. God does not know exhaustively what will happen, but only knows contingently what must happen. This view denies Omniscience. The future is in some sense unknowable, even for God.

I believe that God knows what will happen before it happens, because God is the Sole Cause of Everything that happens. God knows what will occur in the future, because God (The Sole Creator) prepares and then creates the events of the future, in the same way that He prepared and created the events of the past. The Omniscient God knows exhaustively what did happen, what might have happened, what could possibly happen, AND what will definitely happen. This view implies contingent EDF. The future is completely contingent on God.

My question for Geoff (if Geoff were the sort of person to actually answer questions) would be: "Was the future determined (or fixed or certain) Before or After God knew what would happen?"

My question for you is: "If God only knows contingently, then how could He know anything definitely?" God may have planned for Jesus to die on a cross, but King Herod could have slew him as an infant, or the people of Nazareth may have succeeded in throwing him from the cliff. How did God know that wouldn't happen?
 

1013

Post Modern Fundamentalist
Jaltus,

I haven't studied greek but I have a few things to say of your arguments

Before you mount a counter-attack that these arguments do not amount to anything, let me just say a few things. First, when a phrase can modify 2 possible other phrases, it is always taken to go with the closest unless it is nonsensical.

perhaps "lamb slain from the foundation" is nonsensical. What does that mean anyway?

Jesus died once for all around 30 A.D. and not before the foundation of the world or just after the foundation of the world or right at the foundation of the world.

So immeadiatly, we know that the literal rendering in one way is nonsense. Of course there is another literal rendering that is not nonsense and that is that the names that are written from...

Now we could take for granted that the lamb as modified by "from the foundations... makes sense metaphorically and it isn't the lamb that is really slain from the foundations but a plan to slay the lambs. We are taking it for granted though that this means a plan though as this is not crystal clear and it could be that this never occured to the author and to suggest him would be nonsense.

There is yet another way of looking at this metaphorically and in TGWR by Sander's we read

Another option is to understand the language of Paul and John as praise for God's long standing wisdom in accomplishing salvation for sinners. Hence "from the foundation of the world" is a way of refering to the extremely long time that God's wisdom has been working toward the salvation of his sinful creatures.

Perhaps a slightly more radical way of taking this is to say that speaking of something as from the foundations of the world, speaks not of it actually being known, planned, or evident at that point but a romantic passionate way of speaking of the gravity of the thing. At first I wasn’t impressed by Sander’s take above and then I was shown Isaiah 40:21

Do you not know? Have you not heard?
Has it not been declared to you from the beginning?
Have you not understood from the foundations of the earth?



And finally, if this is a reference to a specific plan for sacrificing the son, remember that it says apo and not pro. That’s perfectly in line with the ov. This certainly can refer to events after the fall as this same phrase taken in the same way in Luke 11:50. There were no martyrs before the fall. Luke 11:50 says that there were martyrs since the foundation of the earth, thus since the foundation need not go back farther into the past than the fall.

Thus, I submit to you my, and many scholars, understanding of how to take this passage.

ah many and not all. The following is a footnote footnote is from the most recent modern translation, the New English translation ( www.netbible.com ) Unfortunately it doesn’t have much in the way of why grammatically it is better as you have put forward, but they disagree with your notion that 17:8 is evidence against the other translation.


27tn The prepositional phrase "since the foundation of the world" is traditionally translated as a modifier of the immediately preceding phrase in the Greek text, "the Lamb who was killed" (so also G. B. Caird, Revelation [HNTC], 168), but it is more likely that the phrase "since the foundation of the world" modifies the verb "written" (as translated above). Confirmation of this can be found in Rev 17:8 where the phrase "written in the book of life since the foundation of the world" occurs with no ambiguity.

And of course the translators of the NASB and the RSV also feel that names as modified by the lamb
 
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geoff

New member
Jobeth,

dont presume to know what I think... you have misrepresented my completely... I do not think God see's an eternal now, although He is certainly outside of time.

You also cant seem to see that on one hand drd says 'God DID predestine according to his definate plan' - but on the other says this can not mean 'foreknow'. How on EARTH could He plan something and not know it? What drugs are you people on?
 

drdeutsch

New member
Jobeth and 1013,

Both excellent posts. Thank you.

Jobeth, concerning your question:
I, as an OV'er, completely affirm God's omniscience. He knows all of the present and past exhaustively. As far as future events are concerned, I affirm the standard OV belief that God has exhaustive foreknowledge of the events that He predestines, those events that are part of His "determined purpose and counsel." This part of the future is closed. However, I also believe that part of the future is "open" and not knowable by God. Actually, it is knowable by God, but He knows it as "open." This view does not harm God's omnipotence. Determinists can't seem to understand that most OV'ers realize that nothing can threaten God's predestined events. God simply won't let them be changed in any way. After all, He has spoken it, and He shall bring it to pass. He has purposed it, and He shall do it. (Is 46:11)

Your question, "If God only knows contingently, then how could He know anything definitely?"
In this case, Christ's crucifixion, as part of God's determined purpose and foreknowledge, is not contingent upon human actions. Again, I must stress that Christ's crucifixion was part of God's counsel [Gk. boule] and there was no way that God was going to let anything happen other than what did happen. After all, if God had actually let Herod slay Christ as an infant, how would we acheive salvation? Christ is the only way! This is not to say that God exercised meticulous control over Herod and everyone else during Christ's life in order to insure Christ's safety. It is all very detailed, but to make it brief, God "knows the hearts of men." If Herod had wanted to kill Christ, or felt like doing it, God would have known and taken appropriate measures to counter Herod's actions. It is, no doubt, quite easy for God to thwart our human wills when they might thwart His counsel.

I hope that answers your question.

God bless,
Dr. Deutsch
 

geoff

New member
drd:

I, as an OV'er, completely affirm God's omniscience. He knows all of the present and past exhaustively.

Omniscience also encompasses the future, should it not, it then is not omniscience... perhaps discience (I dont know if there is such a thing to tell the truth).

I affirm the standard OV belief that God has exhaustive foreknowledge of the events that He predestines, those events that are part of His "determined purpose and counsel."

I such event IS the death of Christ, AND the names written in the book of the lamb, FROM THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD.

Can anyone see the problem yet?

Christ's crucifixion, as part of God's determined purpose and foreknowledge, is not contingent upon human actions.
jesus wasnt human, the jews werent human, pilate wasnt human...? Looks like there was a whole lot of human actions required to bring this about.

This is not to say that God exercised meticulous control over Herod and everyone else during Christ's life in order to insure Christ's safety.

I for one have never said God DID excercise meticulous control, but that he foreknew the actions and outcomes. No control needed, or exercised. Foreknowledge is not causuative, so merely knowing can not 'cause'.
 

jobeth

Member
1013: Gosh! Thanks.

Geoff:
I disagree that I have misrepresented your view. We've discussed your view on numerous occassions, and every time I think I understand it, you tell me I don't understand.
Nevertheless, if, on the off-chance I'm wrong, I sincerely hope to grasp it to your satisfaction before we're done.

So I will ask you once again (not knowing whether you are willing or able) to please clarify your position and explain your understanding of how God has complete foreknowledge of the future without causing it.

I realize you must get weary of having to answer objections you feel you have adequately explained. So I beg your patience, as one who asks not in order to contradict, but as one who is sincerely asking for information, so as to be adequate concerning your view. Wouldn't you be happy if at least one person around here understood your position? Wouldn't I be happy if that person was me?

Dr. D.
If it is easy for God to thwart human will when it conflicts with His own, and He does do that on occassion, then how do you know He isn't doing that all the time, like I suspect He is?
 

geoff

New member
Jobeth,

I cant be bothered... this is what you said the last time, and the time before, and the time before. Plenty of other people understand it... one possible reason u dont understand is because you dont want to, another is you're incapable, another is that you dont want to admit I'm right. Another might be that I am completely incoherent, insane and a crackpot... which I have never denied :D
 

Jaltus

New member
Knowledge is not causative. Can we agree on that? Knowing my name is Jaltus does not cause my name to be Jaltus, rather my knowledge exists due to the fact that my name is Jaltus. Knowledge is caused, not causative.
 

Surly-DwarF

New member
Geoff What drugs are you people on?

LOL, exactly! Hence my decision to stay as far away from this thread as possible. Who can argue with the chemically enlightened? But, my guess would be Crack, as I've suggested before.

Rob,

By all means! I agree, Jobeth should be a moderator since being wildly heterodox in one's theology is a prerequisite, and few are more so than she. Shoot her out an application!
 
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