Jefferson said:
Does this sound like Paul taught the law was to be used but no longer? If so, then why all the present tense verbs?
First and foremost, I tend to take the majority scholarship view that the author(s?) of the Pastoral Epistles was not Paul--this would be called a "Pseudo-Pauline Epistle.". That does not cause any substantive change in my arguments against theonomy, but I felt you should be aware of my position, lest it cause confusion.
The entire point of this passage is a warning against false teachers of the Law
within the church. Pseudo-Paul is not deriding the Law, merely the false teachers thereof. One of the marks of a false teacher of the Law is that they do not know what the Law was all about. The Law was
not a part of the Abrahamic Covenant (which Christians see themselves as a part of), but of the Mosaic Covenant. This covenant was a conditional covenant specifically given to the descendants of Israel as a condition for living in Canaan, and the Law was one of those conditions. "Keep the Law and I will bless you; break it, and I will curse you" is a powerful statement, but it is a statement that only applies to descendants of Jacob. (See Ex 19.)
Now, you may think that it would be a good idea for our current Gentile government to require obedience to the Mosaic Law ... but there's a few problems with that. Acts 15 and Gal 3:10-14 may be the most out-spoken examples, but they are far from the only ones. For you to try to live by the Law means that you must do
everything that the Law requires. That means circumcision, ritual cleanliness, eschewing unclean meat, and
the temple sacrifices. You cannot separate the Law into "moral law" and "ritual law"--such a separation is unbiblical.
Wrong. In Abraham's time God foreshadowed Israel's Messiah as both king and priest by the man Melchizideck who was the king of Salem and priest of the most high God. And Christ came after the order of Melchizideck.
Arguable. At no time does Hebrews or Psalms say that the same person will fill the office of Messianic King and Priest after the Order of Melchizedek. It is not an unreasonable conjecture, but it is conjecture.
Centuries before Israel asked for a king, God told Moses to write in Deuteronomy 17:15, "You shall surely set a king over you whom the Lord your God chooses." Does that sound like God is against kings?
As a side note: I also take the majority scholarship view that Deuteronomy was compiled in final form during or shortly after the Babylonian Exile. However, I also addressed this: in Deuteronomy, God does not say "You shall make a King": the text says "When you make a king, do it my way."
Jefferson, I've got to skip the rest for now ... we have a lightning storm in the area.
Justin