We are talking about a government run by God according to the Law of Moses or New Covenant law. United States Law can be that. Being of Israel I already live that way, accepting anything in line with it.
Being of Israel?
And you claim to have not placed yourself under the law.
You're blind.
But I accept that if the Law is distant from you it does not relate to the immediacy of salvation or if you are born again. However, preaching the Law to show someone their need for the Savior likely does involve criminal law or God's criminal law system. Unless it involves neither.
So how can you claim not to be conflating the two and utter the highlighted sentence?
The third sentence doesn't make a lick of sense, by the way.
The law is a tutor to bring us to Christ, yes, but WE ARE NOT SAVED BY FOLLOWING THE LAW!
Under the law you had to do certain things to enter into and maintain a relationship with God. Things that were not optional but REQUIRED. If you refused to do them, you would be cut off, not just from Israel but from God. That is flatly no longer the case. In fact, it is quite the opposite. Your relationship with God has NOTHING to do with what you do or don't do. It is based entirely on your faith in the finished work of Christ at Calvary and only that - period.
Further, things are not immoral BECAUSE they are in the law but rather it's the other way around! It was wrong to murder long before the Law said "Thou shalt not murder." A very long time before!
This discussion is nearing an end. I'm repeating myself and you're getting further away.
A person does not remove themself from under the law.
Paul sure wasted a lot of time writing Galatians then (and most of the rest of his epistles for that matter).
If that is what it is then a person must claim that this is what they have done and justify their action. Now, I am not under the Law. I am under grace. But this is because of what God says not because of what I say. Like accepting forgiveness. It is the same. I am forgiven so I am not under the Law. If there is a sense in which I am under the Law if I observe the Law, it is not a Biblical sense.
You sound drunk. This meandering double talk is unintelligible gibberish. The first sentence makes no sense at all then you went along fine for a few sentences and then you added that last sentence and directly contradicted the previous six.
There is only one reason a person would observe the law (i.e. perform the religious rituals of the Mosaic Law) and that's if they have placed themselves under the law. That's what it means to place yourself under the law in the first place! The law is of the flesh. Why, if you began by faith, would you seek to be perfected by your flesh? - Sound familiar?
Jesus was born under the Law. Meaning, He was born an Israelite with God's Law, the Law of Moses, to live by and to govern every aspect of His life not directly governed by God should there be anything else.
Jesus was born in Israel which did have the Mosaic law somewhat in effect in their government but not entirely. It was Roman law that governed Israel during Jesus' life time, not Moses. The sense in which Jesus was born under the law was religiously - dispensationally. Jesus, for righteousness sake, HAD to observe the religious rites and practices of the Jewish faith (i.e. the Mosaic Law) Jesus did not eat pork, He was circumcised and did get baptized, observed all the sabbaths, etc, etc, etc. If you did that today, you'd be in violation of God's command not to place yourself under the law and would be expected to repent (i.e. remove yourself from under the law).
Either sinners or Israel is under the Law.
Nope. The Law was nailed to that cross at Calvary. You can try to resurrect it all you want but I strongly advise against it.
But to me this is an unknown of my Biblical interpretation. Being born under the Law is different from being converted under the Law. I am not sure what to make about your statements about dispensations.
Your blind because of your paradigm. It cannot be known with "your biblical interpretation" because your interpretation is flatly wrong. You are mixing mail written to two groups of people and forcing them to be speaking to one group. The result is permanent confusion.
The fact is that you are a dispensationalist. Everyone one is. Some simply don't want to admit it and or don't apply the principles consistently.
It is my belief that God's law does not change.
I couldn't care less about your belief.
The bible states otherwise and you couldn't substantiate the claim that it doesn't change anyway - not if your life depended on it.
Here, I'll smash the concept to dust with a single question...
Was Cane executed for the crime of murder or did God Himself directly forbid it?
That His instruction, His Torah, has been from the beginning.
The Torah did not exist before Moses. There was no Torah while Israel was in Egypt. Noah did not have the Torah and neither did Abraham, Isaac or Jacob nor did anyone else prior to about 1446bc when the Ten Commandment were first uttered by God Himself at Mt. Sinai.
From the beginning of the Torah, and from before the coming of the Torah.
This too is false. There was no requirement for anyone to abstain from unclean foods before the Torah. There was no tithing requirement before the Torah. There was no arc of the covenant, no mercy seat, no priest, nor any of a hundred other things before the Torah.
Paul in Acts 9 was not the beginning of grace. However,
I did not say that Paul was the beginning of grace, I said that the dispensation of grace began with Paul. (Actually with the conversion of Saul on the Damascus Road).
Romans 11:6 NASB - 6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace.
I think I have the right verse here. The point is was it ever by works? If this means the Law of Moses that is different from man's traditions even about it. In other words, it can seem that something was taken out of the way without it being the Word or Law of God.
Abraham was the father of BOTH groups, Jacob.
You forget the book of James where James, the brother of Jesus, makes the exact opposite point using the very same person and by quoting the exact same old testament passage!
James 2:20 But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead? 21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? 22 Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? 23 And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” And he was called the friend of God. 24 You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.
Go ahead and try to reconcile that passage with being saved by faith apart from works from within a non-dispensational paradigm! (You will fail.)
You are probably right. But I am not a dispensationalist as you know. I believe that God's law has always been the same. So maybe it was different with Abraham.
How can it have always been the same AND have been different with Abraham?
How can you contradict yourself inside of two sentences like that and not notice it?
Here are your scriptures.
Ezekiel 31:15 NKJV - 15 "Thus says the Lord GOD: 'In the day when it went down to hell, I caused mourning. I covered the deep because of it. I restrained its rivers, and the great waters were held back. I caused Lebanon to mourn for it, and all the trees of the field wilted because of it.
Revelation 22:14 NKJV - 14 Blessed [are] those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city.
They say nothing of what you have said. So I pointed it out to you. I don't need another or a better argument. I don't believe that you have one to begin with. If you do it is unintelligible to me as the scriptures do not say what you are making it out that they say.
They completely say what I said! What are you even talking about?
What do you think Ezekiel 31 is referring to when it says "In the day when it went down to hell"? What do you think the "it" is referring too? Did you bother to check what the antecedent to that "it" was before you posted this? Clearly not! You might want to read the whole chapter of Ezekiel 31. It's all about what happened to the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil.
And Revelation 22 is talking about people IN THE NEW HEAVEN having "the right to the tree of life". It's sort of hard to exercise such a right if the Tree of Life isn't present, don't you think?
Further, we are told elsewhere in Revelation that there is a different fruit that comes ripe each month on the Tree of Life IN HEAVEN. To deny that the Tree of Life is present in Heaven is to simply display ignorance of the biblical material.
Clete