Is that the law and do you believe that it is God's Law? Your terms are progressing, but I am staying with Torah so far.
What should be the punishment for rape?
- Thread starter Jacob
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Is that the law and do you believe that it is God's Law? Your terms are progressing, but I am staying with Torah so far.
What I believe is that God is a loving God who would not endorse rape under any circumstances.
Yes. But consent for an engaged woman with someone she is not engaged to is not lawful. It still results in death for the man. Like with a married woman. Adultery is not circumvented by consent. If she gives her consent, then is she also to be blamed? Does he not know she is engaged or married?
You are posting in politics in regards to rape. An illegal act. Absent consent, sex would be forced .... aka rape. Adultery (while evil) is not in the same category. It is not a sexual assault.
Okay. But adultery is a punishable offense, even without a sexual assault, rape.
Adultery IS a sin. It is punishable by God, not man. You are legally bound by the laws of our nation and spiritually bound by the laws of God.
You can be punished on earth in a court for adultery.
I wasn't thinking of rape as sexual assault. More having sex with someone that you shouldn't. But a man might rape his wife so I understand that now.
Deut. 22:28,29 is not speaking of rape. He seduced her and "they" were found out. It was obviously consentual.
So it is possible to have sex when not married or engaged and it not be rape. I guess so!
You are not staying with what the Torah speaks to.
If there are no witnesses how is force to be proven? If he beats her badly enough to wound her? The text doesn't speak to that at all. It speaks to her saying no and asking for help but no one being there to hear her cries. Her story is taken at face value, and the man is executed by stoning. This passage speaks directly to consent. And so do the other verses in this chapter.
Notice, consent is assumed in this case because if the woman had made a big objection to having sex someone would have heard her because she was inside a city. The same goes for the circumstances in verse 22. The woman is assumed to have given consent because the adultery happened inside the walls of a city and no one heard her scream for help. Remember, these were cities without major traffic noise and glassed in windows so sound carried much better in them than it does in a modern city.
You are the one that isn't even coming close to taking a position that agrees with scripture.
I don't know when you thought that I was telling you that you are wrong but you are wrong if you have thought so.
The point is that the engaged or betrothed woman is protected by law because she will soon be married.
My failure is in not seeing the word rape in the Bible but trying to apply it the best I know how.
This is breaking news?
I guess I did not realize it, knowing that sex is only for marriage. Consensual sounds like a dirty word. But is this a punishment or an allowance of the law? Apparently it is not rape.