ECT What is the true root objection to MAD?

[tetelestai]

So far we've determined that if anyone, a Gentile or an Israelite, was circumcised and believed in the one true God they could be called a Jew.

Is this not correct?

It's only correct after Israel split into two nations. Before the split there was no such thing as a "Jew".

You won't find the word "Jew" or "Jews" in the KJV before the split.

There were no Jews in Egypt, no Jews during the days of Samuel. No Jews during the reigns of King Saul, King Solomon, or King David.

You also won't find any of the Israelites from the House of Israel ever called or referred to as "Jews" in the Bible.

 

[Nick M]

The fact that you won't say "yes" or "no" to the question shows that you are wrong about all Israelites being Jews.

The Jews were the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

The House of Israel included every tribe except Judah, Benjamin, and some Levites. (no Jews)

Let us know when the showcase showdown giant wheel stops spinning.

That's not what I am saying.

I am saying that Gentiles become Israel.

It was the fall of Israel in 750BC that made salvation available to the Gentiles.

 

[tetelestai]

Is God allowed to save anyone he wants and give them any type of body he wants, for his purposes?

Giving the "God can do whatever he wants" answer can be used to prove anything.

There is nothing in the Bible that remotely suggests there will be two (in your case three) different kinds of people with different kinds of bodies in the future.

No one taught anything like this until Darby invented Dispensationalism.

 

[Nick M]

Because God never divorced the Jews (the House of Judah)
God did divorce the House of Israel

The Jews were the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

 

[tetelestai]

Twelve tribes existed and showed up at Pentecost in Acts 2, showing that they believed in the one true God, and could be called Jews

A remnant showed up.

Romans 11 makes it clear that just like there was a remnant of 7,000 men in the days of Elijah, there was also a remnant in the first century.

You do know that Elijah was NEVER a Jew?

The vast majority of Israelites (the non-remnant) were scattered, divorced, had no mercy, and told they were not a people.

 

[tetelestai]

..

All you do is take my posts out of context, and/or use posts from many years ago that I have clarified since then.

Because you have to make all Israelites Jews so your Dispensationalism works, you do the same thing as STP and the other Dispies.

I can't imagine how it must be to have to fight against the truth, in order to defend John Nelson Darby like you do.

 

[SaulToPaul 2]

Giving the "God can do whatever he wants" answer can be used to prove anything.

There is nothing in the Bible that remotely suggests there will be two (in your case three) different kinds of people with different kinds of bodies in the future.

No one taught anything like this until Darby invented Dispensationalism.

Are there celestial bodies and terrestrial bodies, according to scripture?

 

[SaulToPaul 2]

The vast majority of Israelites (the non-remnant) were scattered, divorced, had no mercy, and told they were not a people.

So, who were the lost sheep the LORD was sent to?

 

[tetelestai]

But, he came unto his own (the Jews). The Father sent him, and the Son sent them.

True?

But he was only sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

There were two houses, God divorced the one, but not the other. They are portrayed as sisters in the OT.

Why would you think that Jesus was sent to both houses equally?


In the KJV, there are over 2,000 references to "Israel" that have absolutely nothing to do with Jews. Conversely, there are over 500 references to "Judah" that have nothing to do with "Israel".

Yet, you want to use the words interchangeably, and act like there is no difference.

You think there is no difference between "Israel" and "Judah", and you continually refer to "Israel" as "Jews", and you even change the name of "Judah" to "Israel"

 

[tetelestai]

So, who were the lost sheep the LORD was sent to?

The descendants of the Israelites that God had divorced, scattered, showed no mercy, and told they were not a people.

God never did any of the above to the Jews. The Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God, and the Jews were given mercy.

 

[tetelestai]

Are there celestial bodies and terrestrial bodies, according to scripture?

Of course (1 Cor 15:40)

I'm not denying that. What you are claiming is that some humans become one and other humans become another.

That's just plain crazy talk.

All who have faith are children of Abraham, and children of God. Some don't become celestial, while others become terrestrial. There is nowhere in the Bible that even remotely suggests such a thing.

Again, you only have these crazy theories because of Darby's teachings on eschatology. This is what Darby's rapture invention has led to.

 

[SaulToPaul 2]

The descendants of the Israelites that God had divorced, scattered, showed no mercy, and told they were not a people.

God never did any of the above to the Jews. The Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God, and the Jews were given mercy.

If they were scattered, and the LORD was sent to them, why did he tell the twelve to not enter into any town of the Gentiles?

 

[SaulToPaul 2]

That's just plain crazy talk.

Not if God promised the earth to some, and heaven to some.
And, this is the case, if you choose to believe his Word as he said it.

 

[SaulToPaul 2]

There were two houses, God divorced the one, but not the other. They are portrayed as sisters in the OT.

Why would you think that Jesus was sent to both houses equally?


In the KJV, there are over 2,000 references to "Israel" that have absolutely nothing to do with Jews. Conversely, there are over 500 references to "Judah" that have nothing to do with "Israel".

Yet, you want to use the words interchangeably, and act like there is no difference.

You think there is no difference between "Israel" and "Judah", and you continually refer to "Israel" as "Jews", and you even change the name of "Judah" to "Israel"

Were the Jews part of the lost sheep?

The LORD was certainly sent to his own (Jews).

 

[tetelestai]

If they were scattered, and the LORD was sent to them, why did he tell the twelve to not enter into any town of the Gentiles?

Because he had to die first.

If He would have got remarried it would have been an abomination because He had divorced His wife and she remarried.

That is why after He died, the Disciples were told to go to the Samaritans and Gentiles.

 

[tetelestai]

Were the Jews part of the lost sheep?

No.

 

[tetelestai]

Not if God promised the earth to some, and heaven to some.

They were promised the earth because there was no way God could have explained a spiritual inheritance before the cross.

Christ Jesus is the Promised Land. There is no way OT prophecies could have explained that.

It is in Christ Jesus that we have rest, not some real estate in the Middle East.

The actual Promised Land in the Middle East gave the Israelites rest when they entered it, but it wasn't the spiritual rest we have in Christ Jesus in the NC.

 

[Tambora]

The descendants of the Israelites that God had divorced,

When was this wedding?

 

[john w]

The above is Exhibit A of the cult-like rubbish that followers of Darby believe.

It's so nice of you Darby followers to allow the Jews to inherit the earth in a lesser type body, while you "Body believers" get the superior bodes and inherit Heaven.

Next time you should include the part where you "Body believers" rule over the Jews for exactly 1,000 years here on earth before going back up the Heaven.

Like I said, no one taught this rubbish before Darby invented it.

The punk babbles, stumbles, and cannot refute the scripture, that I provided him, and, once again, satanically asserts that the Lord Jesus Christ is not a man today, and asserts no resurrection/redemption of the body, thus, on record, he admits that he has no mediator, and perverts the gospel of Christ.


On record, for all of TOL to witness.

He is reduced to his "Darby" spam, as I picked his father the devil's "argument" apart.

Tet. the perverter.

 

[john w]

The above is Exhibit A of the cult-like rubbish that followers of Darby believe.

Real slick, sweetie, with your "Exhibit A" spam, another one of your "concession," cue little sayings, as I dismantle you, sending you to the canvass, bloodied.

Like I said, no one taught this rubbish before Darby invented it.

=spam on every thread, and caught, in his habitual lying:



"The teachings you follow didn't exist until Darby invented them."-Tet. the clown




vs.

"That's not my argument.I have never said that dispensationalism was "wrong" because of how old it was. I specifically said that no one taught about Christ coming back twice before Darby did."--habitual liar Wimpy Tet.

“I never said it was wrong for how old it is.”-Tet.


vs.

"No matter how hard you try, you can't take away the fact that dispensationalism was invented by John Nelson Darby in the mid 1800's...Why are most dispensationalists afraid and/or embarrassed to acknowledge that Darby invented what they believe?"-Deceiver Tet.


"My argument is that if there is not one single trace of something for 1,800+ years by anyone, then it was invented.”-Tet.


"... Deep down you know that your belief system has only been around for not even 50 years, and that it was "developed" by men..."-con artist Partial Preterist Tet.

"...Your false teachings of men is a false teaching since there is not one trace of it in the first three centuries. None of the early church fathers taught your theory, its only about 50 years old."-con artist Partial Preterist Tet.

"MAD didn't exist until the mid 1800's"-con artist Partial Preterist Tet.


Lying punk.

Well, Craigie, addicted to lying?

He won't touch this post, as usual.


Loser. Habitual liar.