Understanding the Incarnation

[SwordOfTruth]

How did the Holy Spirit perform this miraculous “Immaculate Conception”?
Possibility #1: the Holy Spirit provided the male sperm necessary
Possibility #2: the Holy Spirit “created” the fetus in Mary’s womb

On what basis do you think it is sound/appropriate for you to impose human reproduction limitations on God ?!!!

How did your God create the universe? Did he not WILL it into existence?

Why then should that god need sperm or a fetus?

You're trying to shackle your God or the Spirit with human limitations instead of realising that God can do anything. He has "Free" will to manifest anything he likes.

 

[Dougcho]

On what basis do you think it is sound/appropriate for you to impose human reproduction limitations on God ?!!!

OK, forget the sperm possibility.
Anything else you'd like to complain about?

 

[Right Divider]

This glory was when He was "the Word" (John 1).
I should write this in red and in bold.
As per the OP ...
Before the Incarnation, the Triune Godhead was ...
God the Father, God the Word, God the Holy Spirit.
Obviously.

The Word and Jesus are the same person, you heretical numbskull.

John 1:14 (AKJV/PCE)​

(1:14) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.​

 

[Dougcho]

The Word and Jesus are the same person, you heretical numbskull.

After reading the OP and my posts ...
don't you realize that I know this (in spades).
I repeat ... it's all about semantics.

 

[Right Divider]

After reading the OP and my posts ...
don't you realize that I know this (in spades).
I repeat ... it's all about semantics.

You are a double-minded person that does not even know what you post.

Welcome to my ignore list.

 

[Derf]

I'm just talking about semantics!
Gabriel said to CALL the Baby ... "Jesus" and "the Son of God".
This is something new ... these names, I mean.
Prior to the incarnation, this deity was simply "the Word".
And how could He be the Son of God
before being "fathered" by the Holy Spirit.
Surely, I'm not the only one who understands
that the Babe was to be called "the Son of God"
because God the Holy Spirit was His "father".
Over and out from the planet Jeez!

Not sure who you are talking to here, but there are reasons to question what you're saying. If that bothers you, then that's on you.
[1Jo 4:9 ESV] In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only Son into the world, so that we might live through him.

That would have to be "God sent his Word into the world" for your view to work.

 

[Derf]

You are a double-minded person that does not even know what you post.

Welcome to my ignore list.

Hey, at least he agreed with you that he's a numbskull.

 

[Dougcho]

Not sure who you are talking to here, but there are reasons to question what you're saying. If that bothers you, then that's on you.
[1Jo 4:9 ESV] In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only Son into the world, so that we might live through him.

That would have to be "God sent his Word into the world" for your view to work.

Actually, He did send the Word into the world (John 1:14).
God sent His only Son ... by/through ... being born of the virgin Mary
God sent His only Son ... by/through ... being "fathered" by the Holy Spirit

 

[Derf]

Actually, He did send the Word into the world (John 1:14).

Of course. But the other verse specifically says He SENT His Son INTO the world. If you're going to post about semantics, at least get them right.

God sent His only Son ... by/through ... being born of the virgin Mary
God sent His only Son ... by/through ... being "fathered" by the Holy Spirit

You were saying He "created" His only Son (through conception). Are you changing your mind? You can't send someone who doesn't exist. So if He sent His Son into the world, then His Son must have existed before He was in the world. Or His Son must be ontologically identifiable at all times with the person that did exist before He was in the world. Thus, the human child, even in the womb, even at the moment of conception, must have been the Word.

 

[Dougcho]

The Word and Jesus are the same person, you heretical numbskull.

John 1:14 (AKJV/PCE)​

(1:14) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,​

(and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.​

Yes, after the Incarnation.

Perhaps, we should change all the translations to honor your version:
(John 1:14) And Jesus was made flesh (i.e. Jesus), and dwelt among us,
(and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

I like your version ... it has sort of a nice ring to it.