beameup
New member
Your disingenuousness is obvious - you lack any genuine interest in researching your own history.
Post-70 AD "Judaism" bears no resemblance to real Judaism, Judaism of the BCE. But how would you know?
The Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent Me - Isaiah 48:16 - 1+1+1
- Thread starter beameup
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Your disingenuousness is obvious - you lack any genuine interest in researching your own history.
Post-70 AD "Judaism" bears no resemblance to real Judaism, Judaism of the BCE. But how would you know?
No. I am not being disingenuous. Of course Judaism changed over time, especially after the Temple was destroyed. You, however, can not decide what is "real Judaism".
You have made a very specific claim, and you are avoiding my request that you provide some support for it. The claim was:
What is your source for this? Which "rabbis of old"?
beameup
New member
There is no "real Judaism". Judaism died in 70 AD.
"Real Judaism" will resume when Messiah returns. (read Ezekiel 40-48)
There were many observant Jews who recognized and were prepared for Messiah -
they became the "Sect of the Nazarenes". The rest were unbelieving, which
has always been so since the Nation was birthed from Egypt, with great riches,
even though great signs and wonders were performed in their presence. Great
signs and wonders will once again come - to the entire earth - preceding His return.
Will you be among the "unbelieving"?
So: who are the "rabbis of old"? Where are your sources? You can't possibly just be making up stuff!
beameup
New member
You are in "unbelief" - you don't even believe in the Exodus.
This "subject" has been introduced in previous posts. :deadhorse:
There is no Mosaic "Judaism" post 70 A.D. - it vanished with the Temple.
1. I have no idea why you think I don't believe that the Exodus took place.
2. You have never said who these "rabbis of old" are. In short- you made that up.
beameup
New member
You didn't even attempt to read the previous post that covered the subject. If there had never
existed in Judaism the belief in "Two Powers in Heaven", then why would it have been necessary
to declare that belief a heresy in 200 A.D.? hmmmmmmmmm
Perhaps you are in a group that preaches/teaches and does not allow any questions or private inquiry whatsoever? I've heard that certain groups can place a curse on you for disobeying their strict rules.
Yes, indeed. All are equal with Jesus' God being the greater.
OK, not totally equal, there is only one Most High.
6days
New member
So how does that work.....
Does Jesus not have "ALL power"? In what way is The Son not equal to The Father?
Is Jesus still subject to his Father?
You claimed the the "rabbis of old " said something. Bottom line is- you have no source for that, and you continuing to lie about this.
Now you have added something new. "In 200 AD believing in 2 powers was declared a heresy".
1. Source?
2. 200 AD is long after Christianity had arisen.
3. Ever hear of Zoroastrianism?
6days
New member
As a human, yes Jesus was subject to the Father, as we are.
1 Corinthians 15:27-28 For “He has put all things under His feet.” But when He says “all things are put under Him” it is evident that He who put all things under Him is excepted. Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.