The Hoax of the Three Days and Three Nights

[Ben Masada]

The Hoax of the Three Days and Three Nights

On the third day or in three days, simply means after a short period of time. (Hosea 6:2)

Night or day for three days, as we have in the request of Esther to fast for her, means three days or three nights whether one follows the tradition to fast by day or by night. Those terms were used here because it was in the Diaspora where most Persians followed the tradition to fast by night. So, Esther's maids who were not Jewish, would share Esther's pain by showing their solidarity with their night fast. (Esther 4:16)

The case of Jonah dispenses all explanation because it happened during a vision. Therefore metaphorical language. That could be the entire three days and three nights, since everything is possible in a vision or dream. (Jonah 2:1)

Now, for the three days and three nights we are talking about, for Jesus to spend in the tomb, according to Matthew 12:40, the writer must have had a very poor insight about parables or metaphorical language to draw his prophecy in the terms of Jonah's allegory. If he had used the language of Esther or Hosea, he could have saved his prophecy from being a hoax, but now he must account for the whole three days and three nights or parts thereof.

We don't even need another gospel writer to contradict the one of Matthew. This contradicts himself as he declares that the next day, the one following the Day of Preparation, the chief Priests asked Pilate for a guard of soldiers to watch the tomb area for three days. (Mat. 27:62-64) The Jewish Preparation Day is always Friday, and the following day is the Sabbath.

Then, after that Sabbath, as the first day was dawning, the women went to see the sepulcher, there was an earthquake, an "angel" came down from Heaven, removed the stone, and the tomb was empty. Someone had cheated the angel by raising Jesus from there long before the "angel" could at least be an eyewitness to the resurrection.

Based on the Jewish method that a whole day or night can be accounted for any part of the day or night, we can consider the first day for those minutes that took Joseph of Arimathea to get Jesus into the tomb before sunset. The first night from sunset to sundawn of Saturday, the second day from sundawn Saturday to sunset that Saturday, and the second night from sunset that Saturday to the sundawn of the first day. It was still dark when the women arrived at the tomb to find it empty. Therefore we are missing a whole day and a whole night to save Matthew 12:40 from becoming a prophetical hoax and a classical contradiction in the NT.

Any volunteers to solve this puzzle?

 

[Bright Raven]

The Hoax of the Three Days and Three Nights

On the third day or in three days, simply means after a short period of time. (Hosea 6:2)

Night or day for three days, as we have in the request of Esther to fast for her, means three days or three nights whether one follows the tradition to fast by day or by night. Those terms were used here because it was in the Diaspora where most Persians followed the tradition to fast by night. So, Esther's maids who were not Jewish, would share Esther's pain by showing their solidarity with their night fast. (Esther 4:16)

The case of Jonah dispenses all explanation because it happened during a vision. Therefore metaphorical language. That could be the entire three days and three nights, since everything is possible in a vision or dream. (Jonah 2:1)

Now, for the three days and three nights we are talking about, for Jesus to spend in the tomb, according to Matthew 12:40, the writer must have had a very poor insight about parables or metaphorical language to draw his prophecy in the terms of Jonah's allegory. If he had used the language of Esther or Hosea, he could have saved his prophecy from being a hoax, but now he must account for the whole three days and three nights or parts thereof.

We don't even need another gospel writer to contradict the one of Matthew. This contradicts himself as he declares that the next day, the one following the Day of Preparation, the chief Priests asked Pilate for a guard of soldiers to watch the tomb area for three days. (Mat. 27:62-64) The Jewish Preparation Day is always Friday, and the following day is the Sabbath.

Then, after that Sabbath, as the first day was dawning, the women went to see the sepulcher, there was an earthquake, an "angel" came down from Heaven, removed the stone, and the tomb was empty. Someone had cheated the angel by raising Jesus from there long before the "angel" could at least be an eyewitness to the resurrection.

Based on the Jewish method that a whole day or night can be accounted for any part of the day or night, we can consider the first day for those minutes that took Joseph of Arimathea to get Jesus into the tomb before sunset. The first night from sunset to sundawn of Saturday, the second day from sundawn Saturday to sunset that Saturday, and the second night from sunset that Saturday to the sundawn of the first day. It was still dark when the women arrived at the tomb to find it empty. Therefore we are missing a whole day and a whole night to save Matthew 12:40 from becoming a prophetical hoax and a classical contradiction in the NT.

Any volunteers to solve this puzzle?

Is it true that partial days and nights are considered as wholes?

 

[Ben Masada]

The Hoax of the Three Day and Three Nights

The Hoax of the Three Day and Three Nights

Is it true that partial days and nights are considered as wholes?

Yes, according to Jewish tradition, they are.

 

[Truster]

The Hoax of the Three Days and Three Nights

On the third day or in three days, simply means after a short period of time. (Hosea 6:2)

Night or day for three days, as we have in the request of Esther to fast for her, means three days or three nights whether one follows the tradition to fast by day or by night. Those terms were used here because it was in the Diaspora where most Persians followed the tradition to fast by night. So, Esther's maids who were not Jewish, would share Esther's pain by showing their solidarity with their night fast. (Esther 4:16)

The case of Jonah dispenses all explanation because it happened during a vision. Therefore metaphorical language. That could be the entire three days and three nights, since everything is possible in a vision or dream. (Jonah 2:1)

Now, for the three days and three nights we are talking about, for Jesus to spend in the tomb, according to Matthew 12:40, the writer must have had a very poor insight about parables or metaphorical language to draw his prophecy in the terms of Jonah's allegory. If he had used the language of Esther or Hosea, he could have saved his prophecy from being a hoax, but now he must account for the whole three days and three nights or parts thereof.

We don't even need another gospel writer to contradict the one of Matthew. This contradicts himself as he declares that the next day, the one following the Day of Preparation, the chief Priests asked Pilate for a guard of soldiers to watch the tomb area for three days. (Mat. 27:62-64) The Jewish Preparation Day is always Friday, and the following day is the Sabbath.

Then, after that Sabbath, as the first day was dawning, the women went to see the sepulcher, there was an earthquake, an "angel" came down from Heaven, removed the stone, and the tomb was empty. Someone had cheated the angel by raising Jesus from there long before the "angel" could at least be an eyewitness to the resurrection.

Based on the Jewish method that a whole day or night can be accounted for any part of the day or night, we can consider the first day for those minutes that took Joseph of Arimathea to get Jesus into the tomb before sunset. The first night from sunset to sundawn of Saturday, the second day from sundawn Saturday to sunset that Saturday, and the second night from sunset that Saturday to the sundawn of the first day. It was still dark when the women arrived at the tomb to find it empty. Therefore we are missing a whole day and a whole night to save Matthew 12:40 from becoming a prophetical hoax and a classical contradiction in the NT.

Any volunteers to solve this puzzle?

Messiah died 3pm April 25th 31 AD Passover Wednesday( 14 Nisan 3791) and resurrected Saturday April 28th 31 AD.

It had to be a Wednesday to fulfil Daniel's prophecy 9:27 ''in the midst of the week''.

 

[CherubRam]

The Hoax of the Three Days and Three Nights

On the third day or in three days, simply means after a short period of time. (Hosea 6:2)

Night or day for three days, as we have in the request of Esther to fast for her, means three days or three nights whether one follows the tradition to fast by day or by night. Those terms were used here because it was in the Diaspora where most Persians followed the tradition to fast by night. So, Esther's maids who were not Jewish, would share Esther's pain by showing their solidarity with their night fast. (Esther 4:16)

The case of Jonah dispenses all explanation because it happened during a vision. Therefore metaphorical language. That could be the entire three days and three nights, since everything is possible in a vision or dream. (Jonah 2:1)

Now, for the three days and three nights we are talking about, for Jesus to spend in the tomb, according to Matthew 12:40, the writer must have had a very poor insight about parables or metaphorical language to draw his prophecy in the terms of Jonah's allegory. If he had used the language of Esther or Hosea, he could have saved his prophecy from being a hoax, but now he must account for the whole three days and three nights or parts thereof.

We don't even need another gospel writer to contradict the one of Matthew. This contradicts himself as he declares that the next day, the one following the Day of Preparation, the chief Priests asked Pilate for a guard of soldiers to watch the tomb area for three days. (Mat. 27:62-64) The Jewish Preparation Day is always Friday, and the following day is the Sabbath.

Then, after that Sabbath, as the first day was dawning, the women went to see the sepulcher, there was an earthquake, an "angel" came down from Heaven, removed the stone, and the tomb was empty. Someone had cheated the angel by raising Jesus from there long before the "angel" could at least be an eyewitness to the resurrection.

Based on the Jewish method that a whole day or night can be accounted for any part of the day or night, we can consider the first day for those minutes that took Joseph of Arimathea to get Jesus into the tomb before sunset. The first night from sunset to sundawn of Saturday, the second day from sundawn Saturday to sunset that Saturday, and the second night from sunset that Saturday to the sundawn of the first day. It was still dark when the women arrived at the tomb to find it empty. Therefore we are missing a whole day and a whole night to save Matthew 12:40 from becoming a prophetical hoax and a classical contradiction in the NT.

Any volunteers to solve this puzzle?

There is obviously something wrong with you. I just read Jonah 1 and 2, and it was not a vision, it was literal. Jonah was in the belly three days and nights. He did not suffocate because there was air in the whales belly. Christ resurrection was after Sunday.

 

[CherubRam]

Messiah died 3pm April 25th 31 AD Passover Wednesday( 14 Nisan 3791) and resurrected Saturday April 28th 31 AD.

It had to be a Wednesday to fulfil Daniel's prophecy 9:27 ''in the midst of the week''.

In the days of Christ the holidays were always on the same day of the week. Scripture states that Christ died and was buried just before the Sabbath day began. That's Friday evening the 13th.

 

[Ben Masada]

The Hoax of the Three Day and Three Nights

The Hoax of the Three Day and Three Nights

Messiah died 3pm April 25th 31 AD Passover Wednesday( 14 Nisan 3791) and resurrected Saturday April 28th 31 AD.

It had to be a Wednesday to fulfil Daniel's prophecy 9:27 ''in the midst of the week''.

Sorry Truster, but things don't have to be the way you have decided they should. The Passover in the 14 of Nisan of 3391 happened on the Sabbath. Read John 18:28; 19:14 and, now if you read Mat. 28:1 you close the cycle to understand that Jesus missed the Passover that day. It had not to be Wednesday before the prophecy of Daniel 9:27 because that prophecy had nothing to do with Jesus. It had been fulfilled much earlier about 300+ years before Jesus had been born. Besides, if you read John 19:31 the day of that Passover was a "high" or "solemn" day because it happened to occur on the Sabbath day. The weekly Sabbath.

 

[CherubRam]

Yes, according to Jewish tradition, they are.

Those prophetic days are literal.

 

[Truster]

Sorry Truster, but things don't have to be the way you have decided they should. The Passover in the 14 of Nisan of 3391 happened on the Sabbath. Read John 18:28; 19:14 and, now if you read Mat. 28:1 you close the cycle to understand that Jesus missed the Passover that day. It had not to be Wednesday before the prophecy of Daniel 9:27 because that prophecy had nothing to do with Jesus. It had been fulfilled much earlier about 300+ years before Jesus had been born.

Messiah was entombed after sunset on the eve of the High Sabbath of the Feast of Unleavened Bread.

 

[Ben Masada]

Those prophetic days are literal.

There is nothing literal about prophecies, dreams, parables or allegories. You will do well but leaning this rule.

 

[Ben Masada]

Messiah was entombed after sunset on the eve of the High Sabbath of the Feast of Unleavened Bread.

A festival is celebrated as a Sabbath but if it falls on a weekly Sabbath it is called a high Sabbath. That's why it says in John 19:31 that the Passover had fallen on a "High" Sabbath.

 

[CherubRam]

There is nothing literal about prophecies, dreams, parables or allegories. You will do well but leaning this rule.

You are constantly in extreme error. Parables can be alleged or literal, they can be in, or out of context. You should not be teaching people anything. There is something wrong with you.

 

[Ben Masada]

You are constantly in extreme error. Parables can be alleged or literal, they can be in, or out of context. You should not be teaching people anything. There is something wrong with you.

Well, let's see what's wrong with me. Go ahead and mention to me a parable that must be interpreted literally.

 

[jamie]

Is it true that partial days and nights are considered as wholes?

Only in special cases.

In the Bible, the season of light (Gen. i. 5), lasting "from dawn [lit. "the rising of the morning"] to the coming forth of the stars" (Neh. iv. 15, 17). The term "day" is used also to denote a period of twenty-four hours (Ex. xxi. 21). In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day. Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time. The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar). "The day" denotes: (a) Day of the Lord; (b) the Day of Atonement; (c) the treatise of the Mishnah that contains the laws concerning the Day of Atonement (See Yoma and Sabbath).

(Jewish Encyclopedia/ Day)​

 

[badp]

Any volunteers to solve this puzzle?

Dave Spiegel addressed this is one of his apologetics classes sometime in the 1990's I think. The explanation is that there were two different calendars in operation -- exactly 1 day apart.

 

[CherubRam]

Well, let's see what's wrong with me. Go ahead and mention to me a parable that must be interpreted literally.

Tell me if you can, is this a parable, or is it literal?
Genesis 3:6
When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it.

 

[rstrats]

Ben Masada,
re: "A festival is celebrated as a Sabbath but if it falls on a weekly Sabbath it is called a high Sabbath."

What is the earliest writing that defines a "high Sabbath" as an annual sabbath/festival that fall on a weekly Sabbath?

 

[daqq]

Ben Masada,
re: "A festival is celebrated as a Sabbath but if it falls on a weekly Sabbath it is called a high Sabbath."

What is the earliest writing that defines a "high Sabbath" as an annual sabbath/festival that fall on a weekly Sabbath?

Does the John 19:31 passage truly say it was a "High Sabbath" or "High Day"? It says "megale", which can be understood as the GREAT Day of Shabbat, (for the Son of man is Master of Shabbat: and in it he rested).

 

[1Mind1Spirit]

Does the John 19:31 passage truly say it was a "High Sabbath" or "High Day"? It says "megale", which can be understood as the GREAT Day of Shabbat, (for the Son of man is Master of Shabbat: and in it he rested).

Relaxed his knees and thereby strangled the flesh.

 

[Ben Masada]

Ben Masada,
re: "A festival is celebrated as a Sabbath but if it falls on a weekly Sabbath it is called a high Sabbath."

What is the earliest writing that defines a "high Sabbath" as an annual sabbath/festival that fall on a weekly Sabbath?

Rstrats, you are entitled to your opinion and I hope I am to mine. I grew up as a Jew and I have always been said that a festival that falls on the Sabbath, it makes of that Sabbath a HIGH Sabbath in the KJV translation; or a solemn Sabbath according to NAB translation; or a Shabaton as Jewish tradition is concerned.