The Gospel of the Kingdom and the plot twist.

Tambora

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Have you ever noticed that Paul never once refers to Jesus as the Son of Man?
Neither did any of the 12 disciples.
Stephen is the only one (other than Jesus Himself) that calls Jesus "Son of man" when he described his vision just before his death.
 

Hoping

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The group of believers with whom we fellowship. Our canon is adopted from the Church of the East that was started by the Apostle Thomas in Parthia (i.e. Persia).

(Check out the table of contents.)

Kindly,
Rhema
I find English much easier to read, and thus to understand.
Does your group teach that a reborn man can live without sinning?
 

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I know.

And Paul poses a dilemma for those with that train of thought.

Galatians 1 LEB
(8) But even if we or an angel from heaven should proclaim a gospel to you contrary to what we proclaimed to you, let him be accursed!
There is no dilemma whatsoever. I've explained this many times before. It's all about the audience.

https://theologyonline.com/threads/another-gospel-in-galatians-1.52439/
Certainly.
One can preach the grace of God from the OT.
That's why all the NT writers incorporate the OT into their preaching.
You couldn't be more wrong. Paul preaches Christ according to the revelation of the mystery.

The old Tambora was well aware of this.
 

steko

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An axiom is a statement that is taken to be true, to serve as a premise or starting point for further reasoning and arguments.

Rom 15:8 may be understood as an axiom to inform us that the LORD Jesus' earthly ministry as recorded in the four gospels was to national Israel exclusively and concerned Israel's Messiah fulfilling prophecy and confirming GOD's promises to Israel proclaimed by the patriarchs.

Rom 15:8 Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers

This truth is made obvious by the LORD Jesus' own words in:

Mat 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

The only exceptions to the rule were in the case of this woman of Canaan and a Roman centurion who both came under the blessing of Abraham by their responses. The woman acknowledged Israel's privileged and favored status and the Roman had built the Jews a synagogue. otherwise, Mt, Mk, Lk and Jn were written to Israel, for Israel and about Israel and especially concerned the promised earthly Messianic kingdom beginning at earthly Jerusalem and from the promised throne of David which was at hand to come and would come if Israel would repent.

Therefore, verses like the following can only be understood as concerning Israel, Messiah's people.

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

By the way, that verse makes no logical sense unless the name Jesus is translated back to Hebrew.

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name 'salvation': for he shall save his people from their sins.

Yeshua is literally 'salvation' in Hebrew.
 

Tambora

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The only exceptions to the rule were in the case of this woman of Canaan and a Roman centurion
One thing about scripture is that it is not light on exceptions.

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name 'salvation': for he shall save his people from their sins.

Yeshua is literally 'salvation' in Hebrew.
Amen, Salvation for all His people, who is the Seed of Genesis 3:15.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
"The Plot"
I was told by you that it's not authoritative MAD, so by your own words MAD does not speak in The Plot. RD said, "MAD says," and I'm saying, "Where does MAD say." You told me, "Not in 'The Plot,'" already. Are you changing your answer?
 

JudgeRightly

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I was told by you that it's not authoritative MAD,

No, what you were told by me was that it's not authoritative in the way that you think that things like the Catechism are "authoritative".

That doesn't mean that "The Plot" not "authoritative" as a source of information.

so by your own words MAD does not speak in The Plot. RD said, "MAD says," and I'm saying, "Where does MAD say." You told me, "Not in 'The Plot,'"

LIar.

already. Are you changing your answer?

My answer is the same.

You want to know what MAD says, read "The Plot."

No, it's not the "be all end all" of texts. It was written by a fallible human being.

But you will never obtain a better understanding or overview of the Bible (aside from just reading the Bible itself) through any other man-made document than "The Plot."

Again, I place "The Plot" second to the Bible. What more of an endorsement do you want?

Authoritative?

That word means "able to be trusted as being accurate or true; reliable."

So sure, by definition, you can trust that "The Plot" is accurate or true, reliable even, but it is not perfect, because it was written by a fallible human being. Might it contain errors? Sure. But it's reliable.

And if it's not, then that's what this forum is for, to discuss beliefs and point out errors that others have.

Read it.

Or don't.

But, barring just reading and studying the Scriptures yourself, you will never understand the Bible better than you do now if you don't.

I'm pretty sure they still have the 30-day money back guarantee, so if you don't think it was worth reading after doing so, you can always get your money back. And If I remember correctly, they don't even tell you to return it.
 

steko

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Amen, Salvation for all His people, who is the Seed of Genesis 3:15.
Certainly, the Seed of the woman was predestined to come and crush the head of the serpent for the potential redemption of all humanity. If one wants to insert the word 'people' there, I think it's permissible, however, throughout Scripture there is frequently a distinction made between 'the people(Israel)' and 'the gentiles(nations)' and that distinction is put there for a reason.
 

JudgeRightly

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Yet humans are.

We're not talking about humans.

We're talking about objective standards.

Justice is one of them.


Yes, you do.

Take it from someone who is not you.

But I do know that the Justice of God will seem unjust to men.

Again, there is no "Justice of God."

Justice is justice.

God is just.

What men think of justice doesn't change the fact that God is just. It just means they're wrong.

The above are contradictory statements.

No, they're not.

"The priesthood of Israel" is not "the entirety of Israel."

The priesthood was the tribe of Levi, specifically.

When God tore the veil ini the temple from top to bottom, it signified that no longer would gentiles have to go through the tribe of Levi to access God, as had been the rule for the past 1500 years. At that point, Gentiles (and Jews, for that matter) still had to go through Israel, but they didn't have to go through a Levitical priest, they could enter into the Holy of Holies directly.

That's NOT the message that Paul taught. He taught that our bodies are the temple, not a physical building, and that anyone anywhere can come to God wherever they are, no building required.

Let me know when you've made up my mind.

Huh?

Yes. Three covenants.

Thank you.

There were more than three, if you're going to nit-pick.

But those are the most important.

And it's even more important to know with whom those covenants were made.

Wasn't Barnabas an apostle?

Yes. And?

The Twelve Apostles were to rule over the Twelve tribes of Israel sitting on Twelve thrones in the City with Twelve walls and Twelve gates....

Paul is number 13. He doesn't fit in.

One thing about scripture is that it is not light on exceptions.

Exceptions define the rule.
 

Rhema

Active member
Matthew 1:21 right at the beginning. "thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins."

Not from the Romans, not from "their oppressors." From their sins. How's He going to do that? The cross.
Well we could have a meaningful discussion about that, but I don't want to get banned again.
 

Rhema

Active member
I find English much easier to read, and thus to understand.
Does your group teach that a reborn man can live without sinning?
This tells me you're not interested in actual conversation.
Had you clicked on the link, you could read the English interlinear of the Aramaic.
So just what scripture teaches your "reborn man living without sinning?"
(Because you do... and have...)

Thanks,
Rhema
 

Rhema

Active member
The only exceptions to the rule were in the case of this woman of Canaan and a Roman centurion who both came under the blessing of Abraham by their responses. The woman acknowledged Israel's privileged and favored status and the Roman had built the Jews a synagogue. otherwise, Mt, Mk, Lk and Jn were written to Israel, for Israel and about Israel and especially concerned the promised earthly Messianic kingdom beginning at earthly Jerusalem and from the promised throne of David which was at hand to come and would come if Israel would repent.
(Matthew 28:18-20 KJV) And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.​

Where in Matthew is there anything that changed in the TEACHING that Jesus brought to Israel (his own) that has now been commanded to be taught to the NATIONS? The same message found throughout Matthew is what is to be taught... those things Jesus commanded.

Rhema
 

Rhema

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We're not talking about humans.

We're talking about objective standards.

Justice is one of them.
There is no objective standard of justice upon which humans can agree.
At best, one may achieve a cultural consensus, but in no wise could that comprise an "objective standard."
Those who believe that such is possible are a bit deluded. (But all humans are to some extent.)
God's thoughts (about justice) are not your thoughts (about justice).

Rhema

PS: That's why revelation through the teachings of Jesus is necessary.
 

Rhema

Active member
Again, there is no "Justice of God."

Justice is justice.

God is just.
And who establishes Justice if not God?

ergo... God's Justice. All Justice is of God.

It almost seems as if you are stuck in the same dilemma as Plato, putting "Justice" above God in order that you may label it "Objective."

But if it is God who, being Just, establishes Justice, then it's the Justice of God.

(This isn't hard.)

Rhema
 
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