“Now Jesus loved Martha and her sister and Lazarus.”
John 11:5 NKJV
http://bible.com/114/jhn.11.5.nkjv
Also, there is a word in the Greek for a female disciple, but it is not used for "the disciple Jesus loved."
“Now Jesus loved Martha and her sister and Lazarus.”
John 11:5 NKJV
http://bible.com/114/jhn.11.5.nkjv
Also, there is a word in the Greek for a female disciple, but it is not used for "the disciple Jesus loved."
I know how your reading of it goes and I know what your point was, which is why I brought it up;
you are insinuating that Yeshua is somehow disqualified to be a Rabbi if he was not married, and I see now that you have insinuated that sentiment again so I need not quote the entirety of your previous post on that matter.
I am insinuating nothing. I know that to get married in Judaism is a commandment and that to be a Rabbi, one must be married. Not only in the First Century but also today. A Rabbi was akin to a Bishop and Paul himself of all men stated that he must be the husband of one wife. (I Tim. 3:2)
However you have still not shown me any writings outside of your own words that teach what you are asserting.
Read the Talmud. It was written from 200 BCE and finished in 200 ACE. A Rabbi could not be a Rabbi as a single man.
Every man is not commanded to get married. Marriage is ordained of God but that does not require every man to get married before he can teach. It may well have been customary but what you have tried to assert was not the teaching in first century Judaism, (unless you can come up with some sources).
The Talmud is an extra-Biblical source. What do you want, that I invent testimonies which is not in the Scriptures? I do not get where you are coming to or from.
As I said, I have my sources in the Apostolic writings, and even Paul having been a Pharisee of Pharisees, fully trained up in Torah, makes no mention of what you have asserted. And even if you can come up with something from Talmud those are compiled after the time of Yeshua.
Paul was never a Pharisee. He was a psychopath liar. The Sect of the Pharisees would never allow a Hellenistic Jew to join their Sect. Paul was never fully trained in the Torah if you compare Gal. 3:16 with Gen. 12:7. Even about the Talmud you are not aware of when it was compiled. How can we discuss it?
“Now Jesus loved Martha and her sister and Lazarus.”
John 11:5 NKJV
http://bible.com/114/jhn.11.5.nkjv
0-100 AD. And the Gospels were written when?
John 19:25-27 Modern English Version (MEV)
25 But standing by the cross of Jesus were His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus saw His mother and the disciple whom He loved standing nearby, He said to His mother, “Woman, here is your son.” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” From that time, this disciple took her to his own home.
I know how your reading of it goes and I know what your point was, which is why I brought it up;
I am insinuating nothing. I know that to get married in Judaism is a commandment and that to be a Rabbi, one must be married. Not only in the First Century but also today. A Rabbi was akin to a Bishop and Paul himself of all men stated that he must be the husband of one wife. (I Tim. 3:2)
Read the Talmud. It was written from 200 BCE and finished in 200 ACE. A Rabbi could not be a Rabbi as a single man.
The Talmud is an extra-Biblical source. What do you want, that I invent testimonies which is not in the Scriptures? I do not get where you are coming to or from.
Paul was never a Pharisee. He was a psychopath liar. The Sect of the Pharisees would never allow a Hellenistic Jew to join their Sect. Paul was never fully trained in the Torah if you compare Gal. 3:16 with Gen. 12:7. Even about the Talmud you are not aware of when it was compiled. How can we discuss it?
Jerusalem Talmud
The Jerusalem Talmud (Hebrew: תַּלְמוּד יְרוּשָׁלְמִי, Talmud Yerushalmi, often Yerushalmi for short) is a collection of Rabbinic notes on the 2nd-century Jewish oral tradition know as the Mishnah. Talmud meanings "instruction", "learning."[citation needed] The Jerusalem Talmud was compiled in the Land of Israel during the 4th-5th centuries CE, then divided between the Byzantine provinces of Palaestina Prima and Palaestina Secunda. The Jerusalem Talmud is also known as the Palestinian Talmud or Talmud de-Eretz Yisrael (Talmud of the Land of Israel). These latter names are considered more accurate by some because, while the work was certainly composed in "the West" (i.e. the Holy Land), it originates from the Galilee area rather than from Jerusalem.[1]
The Jerusalem Talmud predates its counterpart, the Babylonian Talmud (also known as the Talmud Bavli), by about 200 years and is written in both Hebrew and Jewish Palestinian Aramaic. It includes the core component, the Mishna, finalized by Rabbi Judah the Prince (c. 200 CE) along with the written discussions of generations of rabbis in the Land of Israel (primarily in the academies of Tiberias and Caesarea) which was compiled c. 350-400 CE into a series of books that became the Gemara (גמרא; from gamar: Hebrew "[to] complete"; Aramaic "[to] study"). The Gemara, when combined with the Mishnah, constitutes the Talmud.
There are two recensions of the Gemara, one compiled by the scholars of the Land of Israel and the other by those of Babylonia (primarily in the academies of Sura and Pumbedita, completed c. 500 CE). The Babylonian Talmud is often seen as more authoritative and is studied much more than the Jerusalem Talmud. In general, the terms "Gemara" or "Talmud," without further qualification, refer to the Babylonian recension.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jerusalem_Talmud
You are making things up as you go and that is why you cannot provide sources, or links to sources, to support your assertions. The Jerusalem Talmud is the older as it predates the Babylonian by about 200 years. The best you can do is to come up with information stating that it began to be compiled around 70AD/CE, (not 200BCE as you claim). However, if indeed it was around 70CE then it is clearly biased against the newly forming Christian community and for obvious reasons. There is no teaching before the advent of Messiah Yeshua that said or says a man must absolutely be married to be a Rabbi. It may be tradition but Yeshua predates the tradition so the tradition obviously seeks to nullify the teachings of Yeshua by disqualifying him as a Rabbi after the fact. In other words you are a day late and a buck short.
:sheep:
Yes.No bias!....
You are not serious at all. All that you are after is to make people waste their time because you have nothing to say for a reply to a post which is not according to your Christian preconceived notions.
John was not on the Calvary at the time of Jesus' crucifixion for two reasons: First, because when Jesus was arrested in the Gethsemane "ALL" of his disciples forsook him and fled away. (Mark 14:50) The other reason is that according to Roman policy, for security purposes, none of the disciples of a crucified could approach the area of crucifixion. Besides, Jewish decorum would not allow for Jesus to commend his mother to a male disciple. So, he commended his mother to her own daughter-in-law which was Mary Magdalene. This had a home and could take care of Jesus' mother. John didn't even have a home of his own as he used to live with Peter. John was interpolated into the Calvary by the Fathers of the Church who meant to prevent Jesus from being identified as the legal husband of Mary Magdalene. That's all.
Super.
What was the question?
I know how your reading of it goes and I know what your point was, which is why I brought it up;
I am insinuating nothing. I know that to get married in Judaism is a commandment and that to be a Rabbi, one must be married. Not only in the First Century but also today. A Rabbi was akin to a Bishop and Paul himself of all men stated that he must be the husband of one wife. (I Tim. 3:2)
Don't read or comprehend very well do you. Let's try it again.
John 19:25-27 Modern English Version (MEV)
25 But standing by the cross of Jesus were His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus saw His mother and the disciple whom He loved standing nearby, He said to His mother, “Woman, here is your son.” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” From that time, this disciple took her to his own home.
?
A Question about Marriage ............ on second thought, this is a question about the "Gospel's declaration of its Marriage, being singular".
GENESIS 48:14 And Israel stretched out his right hand, and laid [it] upon Ephraim's head, who [was] the younger, and his left hand upon Manasseh's head, guiding his hands wittingly; for Manasseh [was] the firstborn.
(Manasseh was the "Head of the Priesthood", until the title was passed to the Levites under Moses) ......... Ephraim on the other hand is identified as the Tribe that God will use to record his Gospel, Jesus as the Lamb identifies Ephraim (the hebrew's genetic line) as his bride. (God did not name Manasseh, because it would indicate the title could transfer between tribes, like the Head of the Priesthood title transfers (since Manasseh held it at that time). The Tribe that is the Bride of Christ, was Ephraim and this title didn't transfer. Were not talking about the body of believers as the Bride of Christ, which are of the "Remnant of Isreal" ............. we are instead talking about a Tribe Christ called his bride, for the giving of the law.
When the Gospel was near its completion, which was given to the Jews, relative to his crucifixion. Jesus put on his Crown, "The King of the Jews", indicating that the Marriage between the Tribe of Ephraim as the bride had not been broken, there was no divorce. ......................... At the time of the Crucifixion, relative to that, (Aaron originally recieving the title of Head of the Priesthood when Peter was baptized as an apostle), Judah had took the "Head of the Tribes", and Aaron had took, "Head of the Priesthood" (Jesus divided their position because of sin). ....................... When this happened, Jesus was not declaring that he was going to Marry the Tribe of Judah, or the Tribe of Aaron, as the Bride that is allowed to recorded or keep the Law of the Gospel. The Gospel was simply going to be finished, and Ephraim would not be used as a bride anymore, Ephraim would not be divorced, nor would another Tribe be chosen.
A Few Thousands Years Ago .............
God allowed the "5 Foolish Virgins", at that time a picture of Samaria to take the "5 Wise Virgins" to marry, when God allowed Babylon to take the Hebrews from Jerusalem and destroy Solomon's Temple. God did this only to chastise the sin of the Hebrews. Babylon was not allowed to record the gospel, or to give Ephraim a gospel and replace Christ as the husband. ..................... 1 Chronicles 28:8-9 .................... Oded declares that the "5 Wise and 5 Foolish" virgins can remarry, that is the "5 Foolish Virgins can Marry Judah", instead of Ephraim. ........................ Now if Jesus was divorcing Ephraim as his bride, then, they thought that Judah could marry Ephraim and give them their law to carry, like God had done with Babylon when the temple of Solomon was destroyed. ........................ The Romans were going to destroy the Temple once again to signify their marriage ......................... that is an impossibility on two accounts:
1. 5 Foolish Virgins are only a reference to Genetic Dan, not Ephraim.
2. The Gospel allowed Samaria to take Ephraim as a bride temporarily, this was not going to be repeated. 1 Chronicles 28:8-9 ............... has language that describes a marriage between "samaria and judah", as the outcome when this marriage between "5 Foolish and 5 Wise" virgins happen according to Matthew 25 at the end of time, when the "Body of Benjamin is revealed", this is a marriage by fire. (more details in the "Clarence Larkin Chart" study).
Unfortunately, Judah was overzealous in branding Jesus as a criminal, and then the Church became overzealous in attempting to ensure that Jesus was crucified, then and finally the romans and the "new testament church, established under Peter as the first pope, under the tribe of Aaron became overzealous. They have remained in sin since, and now we should see the conclusion of this suicidal behavior very soon.
And the novel came to an end. What do you think I am, a Christian whose statements of his novel don't need to be evidenced with a quote? I am Jewish Nonanonmanon, If I quote all my assertions I expect you do the same. Therefore, that's what I found this post to be, a novel without any truth to it.
He said to Mary; Woman, here is your son. End of story.You seem not to understand English or the English I use in my posts. What Jesus meant by saying, "Woman, here is your son" was a kind of apology for what he, Jesus had carelessly reduced himself to that condition of a disappointment to his parents. It was something akin to "Mother, I am sorry for having disappointed you by letting this happen to your own son. Please, forgive me as I know how this is killing you." Then Jesus said to the disciple whom he loved "Mary, there is you mother." And, in fact, Jesus' mother was Mary Magdalene's mother-in-law who took Mary along to her home and took care of her for the rest of her life. It could not be John because he was not Jesus' beloved, he was not there for obvious reasons, being one of them that John had fled away when Jesus had been arrested. (Mat. 26:56; Mark 14:50) And because of Jewish decorum, a Jew would never commend his mother to a male disciple.
You seem not to understand English or the English I use in my posts. What Jesus meant by saying, "Woman, here is your son" was a kind of apology for what he, Jesus had carelessly reduced himself to that condition of a disappointment to his parents. It was something akin to "Mother, I am sorry for having disappointed you by letting this happen to your own son. Please, forgive me as I know how this is killing you." Then Jesus said to the disciple whom he loved "Mary, there is you mother." And, in fact, Jesus' mother was Mary Magdalene's mother-in-law who took Mary along to her home and took care of her for the rest of her life. It could not be John because he was not Jesus' beloved, he was not there for obvious reasons, being one of them that John had fled away when Jesus had been arrested. (Mat. 26:56; Mark 14:50) And because of Jewish decorum, a Jew would never commend his mother to a male disciple.
HEBREWS 9:24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, [which are] the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:
HEBREWS 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
HEBREWS 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
The statement is also true for the Hebrews, they were taken into Babylonian Custody after the temple of Solomon was destroyed, and this was a picture of divorce as a form of chastisment ............ God only intended this to happen once as hebrews 9:28 indicates, so that the hebrews could be an example of rebirth for the nations. (Zion the Separatist Inheritance* of Judah, was chosen in the name of the Jews, the unity of "Joseph the Lion that redeems Judah (Rev. 5:5", was chosen among Judah by Ephraim according to Ezekiel 36:16-19)
LAMENTATIONS 2:17 The LORD hath done [that] which he had devised; he hath fulfilled his word that he had commanded in the days of old: he hath thrown down, and hath not pitied: and he hath caused [thine] enemy to rejoice over thee, he hath set up the horn of thine adversaries.
LAMENTATIONS 2:18 Their heart cried unto the Lord, O wall of the daughter of Zion, let tears run down like a river day and night: give thyself no rest; let not the apple of thine eye cease.
David's Chosen Tribe was Ephraim (1 Kings 11:13 Genetic Jews) ........ The Jewish people would be driven from all the nations, but they would not be eliminated, the "Apple of thine Eye would not Cease". They would be used by God to identify the "Heart of Judah or Zion", Judah's Separatist Inheritance* of a New Planet of their own. (By the time the Holocaust was completed, the Global Jewish population began to overwhelm the United States, and since that time, the Jewish Population outside of the USA is very insignificant) (The "day and night to forever" of Lamentations 2:18, restates Jeremiah 33:20-21, which says "Benjamin and Joseph" are separated by the "Key of David" when the "3 Days of Darkness begins", completing the assignment of the USA as the "Heart of Judah", because they have captured the "Apple of David, which was Ephraim", when the Judgment of Judah for 150 days begins to be done in less then 40 days from now).
All Human Life will be Terminated outside the "Heart of Judah, which is Zion", this is to be done soon
ISAIAH 4:3 And it shall come to pass, [that he that is] left in Zion, and [he that] remaineth in Jerusalem, shall be called holy, [even] every one that is written among the living in Jerusalem:
ISAIAH 4:4 When the Lord shall have washed away the filth of the daughters of Zion, and shall have purged the blood of Jerusalem from the midst thereof by the spirit of judgment, and by the spirit of burning.
Only Human Life in the "Heart of Judah which is Zion", is allowed to life when Star Wormwood begins for 153 Days (Isiah 4:3). All human life must be terminated outside the heart of Judah, all nations must eliminated (Isiah 4:4). (that which is called Zion, has captured Ephraim) This is to be done soon. The Antichrist, we don't know who he is, intends to exterminate millions with a tsunami, but he needs a certain level of force to be done to him, in order for this to be done.
Significant of Progressive Diaspora (driving out from the nations) of the Hebrews
Recapping. God never divorced Ephraim, he just stopped using them to write the Gospel because it was completed. God would go on to use Ephraim to establish "Zion". .................. After Jesus was Crucified, the Early Church attempted to Prove that: 1) God divorced Ephraim, and 2) Ephraim became a bastard child because it could not receive the law of the New Testament Church. ....................... The Tribe of Aaron lead the Execution of Peter, as the Head of the Priesthood, entrusted with the New Testament Church, and Aaron later lead continual diaspora of the Hebrews. This is apart of Aaron's "War with God", that has continued since Aaron fell into the Assyrian sin of Worshiping the Golden Calf. God does ask for Repentance for Aaron, but they are to be terminated soon. .......................... So you can see how profitable, the enemies of the gospel have attempted to make the gospel invalidated by the elimination of the Hebrews ... this was apart of God's program to establish the "Heart of Judah or Zion", as apart of the process of faith. In less then 40 Days, all human life outside of the usa will cease, and all human life inside the usa not ascribed to judah will also cease.