A fair enough question but remains typically callow in its effort to miss the (objective) mark. Conception begins in the fallopian tube, moves to the uterus with a gestation period for approximately nine-months. I know you realize this yet, your question fails to make this otherwise obvious distinction when morally comparing "stages of development". In short, in the moral evaluation of the fetus there's an - again obvious - condition to the abortion debate that pro-lifers
continuously choose to ignore....the pregnant woman.
All women react to their pregnancy
in potentia... though with, at times, differing conclusions. Some desire their pregnancy, effectively envisioning a cuddly newborn while others desire to avoid the burdens assosiated with such.
In my view, both women are correct. Pro-lifers, by contrast, simply take this same potential and project their view upon some faceless, unknown woman while by default condemning any woman who may choose the latter view, all based upon a presupposed pro-life (in potentia) moral view she has no commitment to share with you.
Why is that:
By virtue of the very
nature of pregnancy itself; the juxtaposition of fetus
subsisting within the womb, neither women must be condemned or otherwise commanded to remain host to another human being without explicit personal consent....moreso, as there is no such non-pregnancy precedent.
In conclusion, as a third party to pregnancy the law must take a rationally, practical, objective, non-emotional approach as to when to recognize the full, unimpeded rights of human beings; the same "stage of development" it has always been since the inception of our country.....at birth.