ECT Sermon on the Mount- Interplanner's View

[Right Divider]

He was Lord of the Sabbath. He was not "under" it.

You are always fighting AGAINST the truth:

Gal 4:4 (AKJV/PCE)​

(4:4) But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
​

And here I thought that you were such an expert on the book of Galatians.

There is no bearing on being a Jew.

Wrong again.

 

[Interplanner]

You are always fighting AGAINST the truth:

Gal 4:4 (AKJV/PCE)​

(4:4) But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
​

And here I thought that you were such and expert on the book of Galatians.


Wrong again.

You always leave the scene. He was Lord of the Sabbath.

He was also obedient to the Law for us on our behalf, but not making all the ceremonial and dietary things a requirement.

 

[Right Divider]

You always leave the scene. He was Lord of the Sabbath.

Yes, the LORD Jesus Christ is many things... including a Jew under the Law.

He was also obedient to the Law for us on our behalf, but not making all the ceremonial and dietary things a requirement.

:rotfl:

Scripture please.

 

[Interplanner]

Yes, the LORD Jesus Christ is many things... including a Jew under the Law.


:rotfl:

Scripture please.

He fulfilled all righteousness for us, Mt 3:16.
He fulfilled the law so there would be righteousness for those who believe, Rom 10:1-4.
He lived an indestructibe life (purity, integrity), Heb 7:16
Rom 8:3-4

 

[Right Divider]

He fulfilled all righteousness for us, Mt 3:16.
He fulfilled the law so there would be righteousness for those who believe, Rom 10:1-4.
He lived an indestructibe life (purity, integrity), Heb 7:16
Rom 8:3-4

None of these passages say that He "was also obedient to the Law for us on our behalf".

Just more fairy tales.

 

[Interplanner]

None of these passages say that He "was also obedient to the Law for us on our behalf".

Just more fairy tales.

If it was a matter of finding a code like 2321221545412265, then no that's not there. But what on earth did Christ have a perfect life for? FOR US, for redemption. The paschal lamb has to be 'spotless, without blemish or defect.'

Not only are you on another planet, you are about another heaven!

What praytel is Rom 10:1-4 if Christ did not do that there? And, why is the righteousness of the law of Judaism such a problem by contrast? Because it made them blind to what Christ was providing, which was his own!

 

[Interplanner]

None of these passages say that He "was also obedient to the Law for us on our behalf".

Just more fairy tales.

If it was a matter of finding a code like 2321221545412265, then no that's not there. But what on earth did Christ have a perfect life for? FOR US, for redemption. The paschal lamb has to be 'spotless, without blemish or defect.'

Not only are you on another planet, you are about another heaven!

What praytel is Rom 10:1-4 if Christ did not do that there? And, why is the righteousness of the law of Judaism such a problem by contrast? Because it made them blind to what Christ was providing, which was his own!

You are too rigid and controlled by other doctrine and structure and so the plain meaning does not come through.

 

[Interplanner]

You probably are in no mood to hear this, but the expression in Gal 2:20 "I live by faith in the Son of God" (NIV) is actually by the faith of the Son, ie, by the integrity of what he accomplished. Just check the cases by looking at Greek grammar commentaries. Nothing cures a zealot for Judaism like knowing that someone else's righteousness has been credited to you!

Greek commentaries are the ones that have just enough English explanation that you don't drown.

 

[Danoh]

You always leave the scene. He was Lord of the Sabbath.

He was also obedient to the Law for us on our behalf, but not making all the ceremonial and dietary things a requirement.

Actually, He was the Lord of the Law the Sabbath is a part of, but made Himself of no reputation and put Himself under the Law, for all, that He might (as you are implying) taste for every man (that is to say, that He might taste "for us") that death the Law calls for -"for" per the Law "all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God."

So yeah, Romans 5:8.

 

[Interplanner]

Of course it does.

Ezek 37:24 (AKJV/PCE)​

(37:24) And David my servant [shall be] king over them; and they all shall have one shepherd: they shall also walk in my judgments, and observe my statutes, and do them. ​

You don't understand what "observe my statutes" means?


That one of us is you.

re statutes: unless of course a letter from the apostles says that such things were only applicable until the time of the reformation in Christ, as does Hebrews and Colossians.

2P2P is in the habit of treating these chapters in Ezek and Zech 14 as the "real" new testament after the new testament. And really pounding you for not seeing that because they have 'education.'

 

[Right Divider]

If it was a matter of finding a code like 2321221545412265, then no that's not there. But what on earth did Christ have a perfect life for? FOR US, for redemption. The paschal lamb has to be 'spotless, without blemish or defect.'

Jesus was "perfect and without blemish or defect", but the Bible does NOT say that He "kept the law for US". That is an attempt (as per usual) to FORCE something on the scripture that is NOT THERE.

Not only are you on another planet, you are about another heaven!

More lies for your GIGANTIC lie pile.

What praytel is Rom 10:1-4 if Christ did not do that there? And, why is the righteousness of the law of Judaism such a problem by contrast? Because it made them blind to what Christ was providing, which was his own!

What, pray tell, is praytel? More "modern grammar"?

The LORD Jesus Christ is NOT "the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth." because He kept the law. He is such because His DEATH was for the payment for our sins.

You are so ignorant of the simple things in the Bible.

Rom 5:8-9 (AKJV/PCE)​

(5:8) But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. (5:9) Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.

Eph 1:7 (AKJV/PCE)​

(1:7) In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Eph 2:13 (AKJV/PCE)
(2:13) But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

Col 1:14 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:14) In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:

Col 1:20 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:20) And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, [I say], whether [they be] things in earth, or things in heaven.
​

Nowhere can you find a scripture that says that He kept the law FOR US, nowhere.

 

[Interplanner]

Jesus was "perfect and without blemish or defect", but the Bible does NOT say that He "kept the law for US". That is an attempt (as per usual) to FORCE something on the scripture that is NOT THERE.


More lies for your GIGANTIC lie pile.


What, pray tell, is praytel? More "modern grammar"?

The LORD Jesus Christ is NOT "the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth." because He kept the law. He is such because His DEATH was for the payment for our sins.

You are so ignorant of the simple things in the Bible.

Rom 5:8-9 (AKJV/PCE)​

(5:8) But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. (5:9) Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.

Eph 1:7 (AKJV/PCE)​

(1:7) In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Eph 2:13 (AKJV/PCE)
(2:13) But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

Col 1:14 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:14) In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:

Col 1:20 (AKJV/PCE)
(1:20) And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, [I say], whether [they be] things in earth, or things in heaven.
​

Nowhere can you find a scripture that says that He kept the law FOR US, nowhere.

Why did he have to get baptized and fulfill all righteousness? There is no place that that expression means to be an atoning sacrifice.

I gave you the list, and the death is part of it, but why would he be spotless and perfect then?

Gal 2:20 says Paul as a Christian lives by the faith of the son of God which is in the objective sense; the faithfulness or loyalty to God that he performed. Hebrews says he learned obedience. he offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries. That suffering (5:8) was not the cross, it was earlier things.

In the Gospel, righteousness has to be imputed; that's Christ's righteousness that is imputed to us. It is the human life he lived. why else would he be born under the law? The righteousness in Rom 5:21 is the righteousness of Christ. In 2 Cor 5:21 'he had no sin.' 33 years and no sin = God's righteousness.

So I totally disagree with what you said about rom 10:1-4; it is just you and your head defending that. Just look into the ordinary meaning of fulfilling something (that is not a prediction, expectation). The law required righteousness and he fulfilled it. So avoid your complications, thanks.

I have seen plenty of nonsense from you and don't have any regard for you putting yourself up as the arbiter of 'basic understanding of the NT.'

 

[Interplanner]

There is the same reason for Lk 2:52 or 4:2. He was tempted every way that we are but without sin, Heb 4. Why? Because he was the righteousness of God that would be imputed to us.

 

[Right Divider]

Why did he have to get baptized and fulfill all righteousness?

Because His nation, which includes Himself, was to be a kingdom of priests. He did NOT get baptized to "keep the law for us".

 

[Interplanner]

Because His nation, which includes Himself, was to be a kingdom of priests. He did NOT get baptized to "keep the law for us".

So...a 'nation of priests' is not spiritual? I thought they were going to be a civic authority as in the days of David. So Peter was just getting ready to go back in to Judaism? In I Peter 1, 2? So there is no difference between a person in Judaism doing the law rightly (not badly like a Pharisee) and a Christian believer?

You are so close, but when the idea of Israel, first, being the missionaries to the world is presented as it is in the gospels and Acts, you explode and go into ridicule and putdowns.

 

[Right Divider]

So...a 'nation of priests' is not spiritual?

You don't know what "spiritual" means.

 

[Interplanner]

How do you know?

The kingdom of priests works in the living temple, which is Christ. By being part of Christ, they are spiritual. There is nothing else to say about it.

 

[Right Divider]

How do you know?

The kingdom of priests works in the living temple, which is Christ. By being part of Christ, they are spiritual. There is nothing else to say about it.

Thanks for confirming that you do not know what "spiritual" means.

Spiritual does NOT mean that there are not aspects in the physical.

Spiritual does NOT mean simply "non-physical".

 

[Interplanner]

Thanks for confirming that you do not know what "spiritual" means.

Spiritual does NOT mean that there are not aspects in the physical.

Spiritual does NOT mean simply "non-physical".

You'll have to do better than just use the word physical and non-physical. The antonym of spiritual in the NT is Judaistic, or of the law, or of works, or works of the law. This is true when it says 'kata sarka' as well, 2 Cor 5:16 which is normally 'worldly.' this exists because of things Jesus said in John saying he was from above while they (teachers of the law) were of this world.

To be spiritual is to be fully aware of what is in Christ the Seed. To know that all that was promised is met in him. To be mature that way. To be immature is to be in Judaism, to be under the law, the child-trainer.

How is that on such a vital topic you don't have one hint of an actual passage?

 

[glorydaz]

So I totally disagree with what you said about rom 10:1-4; it is just you and your head defending that. Just look into the ordinary meaning of fulfilling something (that is not a prediction, expectation). The law required righteousness and he fulfilled it. So avoid your complications, thanks.

You must have missed it. He didn't fulfil the law FOR US at all. He freed us from the law of sin and death by condemning sin in the flesh....that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled IN US. In us...not for us.

Romans 8:2-4 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death. For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.​