Of course they could. Now compare that to nonsense non-Biblical prophecy that is wrong. Do you question them?
What are the odds that David got it right 1000 years before, and just as important hundreds of years before the Romans started crucifying people. It is ok to ask questions, but you ask questions like "Is the moon made of cheese?" and expect a real reply. Delve into the non-Biblical history of Jesus then ask again. That isn't rhetorical or snotty, go read up.
I don't believe in prophecy at all, whether it's biblical or otherwise.
What I'm saying is, from my non-believing perspective, David
didn't get it right. He wrote something down, allegedly, and one thousand years later the gospel authors copied and pasted it from the Old Testament into the New Testament to give their narrative the appearance of having reported prophecy fulfillment. Why not? It's far more realistic than any notions of divine processes and intervention.
As for crucifixion, it was practiced by the Assyrians and the Babylonians. Even if the author of Psalm 22 does allude to crucifixion, it's likely the author was already familiar with the practice. But does Psalm 22 really reference crucifixion? Not according to
this Hebrew translation, or
this one, and
this translation doesn't seem much like crucifixion either.
It's far from open and shut that this verse references crucifixion and even if it does it was a common enough practice for the author to have been well aware of it.
And isn't Psalm 22 about David himself? It's not presented as a prophecy, he was belly aching about people hating him and wanting to kill him, if it was even written by him in the first place.
So again - and I apologize you got your nose out of joint over this question - how is this not copying and pasting from the OT to the NT? How is prophecy fulfillment more realistic than copying and pasting?