I'll just go with Jacques Maritain's definition in
Man and the State: The state is the administrative head of the body politic. "The body politic or the political society is the whole...Political society, required by nature and achieved by reason is the most perfect of temporal societies. It is a concretely and wholly human reality, tending to a concretely and wholly human good - the common good...The entire man - though not by reason of his entire self and of all that he is and has - is part of the political society; and thus all his community activities, as well as his personal activities, are of consequence to the political whole" (Jacques Maritain,
Man and the State, p. 10).
As St. Thomas argues in ST I-II, q. 90, a. 3, it belongs to the reason and will of him to whom the end belongs to make decisions concerning that end. Thus, for a private good, it belongs to the private individual to make decisions about it. For a common good or common end (such as is the common good or common end of the political society as a whole), however, making decisions about it belongs to the one who has care of the common whole of which that common end or good is the common end or good: this will either be the entirety of that whole (all of the people acting in unison), or else, he who has the care of that whole (the lawful authorities who are set over that whole people).
These lawful authorities, with all of the "machinery" which belongs to them and to their exercise, I call "the State," although, by an extension of meaning, it can, perhaps, indicate that over which the State is properly set (namely, the whole political society governed by the State).
Its nothing more than a group of violent thugs who act like their victims are the violent ones.
That's your personal emotive outlook. Whether or not it's grounded in reality is another matter (and, in fact, it is not).
"regulate commerce" is a euphemism for the evil violence you support.
False. Since the lawful authorities are set over the common good and have care of the whole political society, they are able to make lawfully binding decisions (which, moreover, bind in conscience (Romans 13:5)) about how to secure the common good for that political society (thus, how to effect political justice and things of this nature). Since commerce is of direct significance to the political society and, in fact, can be brought under the general head of "political justice," then the State has the authority to make (and enforce) laws concerning it.
Proof-texting of the basest variety. Keep reading:
"Revenge not yourselves, my dearly beloved; but give place unto wrath, for it is written: Revenge is mine, I will repay, saith the Lord" (Romans 12:19).
I am not here dealing with the private interaction of private citizen and private citizen. I'm talking about matters of political justice. If you call me a bad name and I punch you in the face, that's an act of private revenge. If I punch you in the face unprovoked and a police officer arrests me for battery, that's not an act of private revenge. That's an act of political justice which is ordered to the public good (especially political peace, order and justice). Whatever is
per se ordered to another thing is not contrary to that thing. Thus, since the act of the policeman is
per se ordered to public peace, it's not contrary to peace. It is, in fact,
per se peaceful.
Its intrinsically wrong to violate that passage and the police officers were clearly violating it. The peaceful thing to do would have been to leave the peaceful man alone.
Insofar as Eric Garner was violating the laws (which are, in fact, genuine laws; there is nothing, in and of itself, morally repugnant about regulating commerce) of the political society, he was, in fact, not a peaceful man at all. He was doing injury to the political society by holding her laws in contempt and trampling them underfoot. Not to mention, of course, that he was already recognized as a public nuissance.
Can you name any "Christian libertarians" which professed such a doctrine prior to Hobbes?