I am wondering if what you wrote , This cup that is poured out for you is the new covenant in my blood and hat are you saying the Paul is saying we are under the new covenant ?Paul certainly believed we are partakers of the bread (the one body of Christ) and the cup (the new covenant).
Luke 22:19-20 ESV
(19) And he took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it and gave it to them, saying, “This is my body, which is given for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”
(20) And likewise the cup after they had eaten, saying, “This cup that is poured out for you is the new covenant in my blood.
1 Corinthians 11:23-26 ESV
(23) For I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread,
(24) and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body, which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”
(25) In the same way also he took the cup, after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.”
(26) For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord's death until he comes.
1 Corinthians 10:16-17 ESV
(16) The cup of blessing that we bless, is it not a participation in the blood of Christ?
The bread that we break, is it not a participation in the body of Christ?
(17) Because there is one bread, we who are many are one body, for we all partake of the one bread.
What other "new covenant" could it be since scripture only mentions one new covenant?I am wondering if what you wrote , This cup that is poured out for you is the new covenant in my blood and hat are you saying the Paul is saying we are under the new covenant ?
Covenant // diatheke has other meaning , like arrangement which is the right Greek word to use in 1 Cor 11:25 .
just asking ?
dan p
You mean the one that was new for Israel?What other "new covenant" could it be since scripture only mentions one new covenant?
The body of Christ gets the benefits of the blood of Christ without a covenant. We have no covenant, especially not one given only to Israel.He is saying that by being a participant in the cup (blood of Christ) & the bread (body of Christ) makes one a participant of the body & the new covenant, for His body and blood were given for the benefit of the whole world.
Israel and the body of Christ. Stop trying to erase what God has written.No one is saved except by the sacrifice of His body and blood.
Hi, I'm newbie here but an ol' geezer in the faith <g>. We don't tell the difference between the two. The point to the passage is in 1Cor 11:28. It has to do with self-examination. (See also 2Cor 13:5).So, how do we tell the difference between the two?
You mean the one that was new for Israel?
I hope others take up learning Greek and go with the oldest versions of scripture. Others here and elsewhere have shaped my "theology" with knowledge.Covenant // diatheke has other meaning , like arrangement which is the right Greek word to use in 1 Cor 11:25 .
Expound on this. What is a covenant? Isn't that a legal agreement between parties? What do the 2 parties have to do to remain in it?all Gentile believers are in a covenant relationship
No, it does not. The NEW covenant is between the same two parties as the OLD covenant.Yes! It applies to Gentiles as well,
Christ is BOTH the King of Israel and the head of the body of Christ.since Christ himself is the embodiment of the New Covenant (Isa 42:6; 49:8);
That is pure mythology.therefore, by virtue of our union with him through the Holy Spirit, all Gentile believers are in a covenant relationship with the Father through the Son by the Holy Spirit.
Per Jer 31:31ff, the NC is unlike the Old. And I might add -- different in many ways and different qualitatively, as well. For example, the OC was bilateral in nature; whereas the NC is unilateral with respect to the redeemed. On the other hand, since Christ is the Federal Head of his Father's elect (cp Rom 5:12ff), the Father and Son entered into a covenant relationship in eternity (Eph 1:4-7) which is why this particular covenant is characterized as "eternal" (Heb 13:20). So, yes, there was an eternal "legal agreement" between Father & Son; for how else could any believer today have been predestined to be saved before the world began? How that happened was in Christ. Christ as our federal head agreed to make himself lower than the angels, take on humanity in the form of a lowly, humble servant, do his Father's will always, i.e. keep the Mosaic Law perfectly (Heb 10:9), pay the Law's prescribed penal code on behalf of the elect which he did on the Cross when he ratified the New Covenant in his own blood. The Father, on the other hand, (among other things) hand promised to make his Son a great king over all the nations (Isa 49:6). And in fact, in Jesus' high priestly prayer to his Father he prayed for the salvation of his disciples and all those who would believe on Him through their gospel preaching, and in that prayer (and this is very important) that his Jewish disciples and subsequent believing Gentiles would all be one, just as He and the Father are one (Jn 17:20-23; Gal 3:28). This is just a thumbnail sketch. Of course, the NC fulfills that part of the Abrahamic Covenant wherein God promised Abraham that he would make him the "father of many nations".Expound on this. What is a covenant? Isn't that a legal agreement between parties? What do the 2 parties have to do to remain in it?
Per Jer 31ff, the new covenant is between God and Israel. It's crystal clear.Per Jer 31:31ff, the NC is unlike the Old.
You'll believe just about anything.And I might add -- different in many ways and different qualitatively, as well. For example, the OC was bilateral in nature; whereas the NC is unilateral with respect to the redeemed.
The body of Christ is saved by the blood without a covenant. You've believed some falsehoods.On the other hand, since Christ is the Federal Head of his Father's elect (cp Rom 5:12ff), the Father and Son entered into a covenant relationship in eternity (Eph 1:4-7) which is why this particular covenant is characterized as "eternal" (Heb 13:20).
Believers today are not the nation of Israel, with whom God will make the new covenant, per Jer 31 and reconfirmed in Heb 8So, yes, there was an eternal "legal agreement" between Father & Son; for how else could any believer today have been predestined to be saved before the world began?
Well, I guess per Mat 26:27-29, you will definitely not be drinking the "fruit of the vine" anew with Jesus in his Father's kingdom. After all, it is the "blood of the covenant" which is "poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins". If you're not washed clean of your sins by the blood of the covenant, then you are still in your sins, since you cannot possibly be included in the "many". For without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of anyone's sins (Heb 9:22). Moreover, since you categorically reject the "blood of the [new] covenant", you unwittingly reject Christ himself who is the very embodiment of that covenant (Isa 42:6; 49:8). Christ is ALL, and is in all (Col 3:11), and that means he is the New Covenant, just as He is the Way, the Life and Truth.Per Jer 31ff, the new covenant is between God and Israel. It's crystal clear.
You'll believe just about anything.
The body of Christ is saved by the blood without a covenant. You've believed some falsehoods.
Believers today are not the nation of Israel, with whom God will make the new covenant, per Jer 31 and reconfirmed in Heb 8
Re your last sentence above: But there are plenty of Jewish believer's today. So, are we supposed to believe that they are in the new covenant relationship with their redeemer, but Gentiles aren't? Or are messianic believers today also not in the new covenant relationship with their redeemer because they're still living in the "times of the Gentiles"?
Firstly, Jesus is speaking to SPECIFIC people there and not to everyone in general. It is this all too typical taking the scripture OUT OF CONTEXT that causes you (and most of Churchianity) so much confusion and error.Well, I guess per Mat 26:27-29, you will definitely not be drinking the "fruit of the vine" anew with Jesus in his Father's kingdom.
The "blood of the covenant" refers to its relationship with those UNDER the covenant.After all, it is the "blood of the covenant" which is "poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins".
Nope, the blood itself has washed me clean, no covenant needed.If you're not washed clean of your sins by the blood of the covenant, then you are still in your sins, since you cannot possibly be included in the "many".
Blood... not covenant for the body of Christ. We are NOT the nation of Israel, we are NOT the house of Israel nor the house of Judah.For without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of anyone's sins (Heb 9:22).
You are wrong and totally so. I am in the body of Christ because I trust that Christ died for my sins, was buried and was raised again.Moreover, since you categorically reject the "blood of the [new] covenant", you unwittingly reject Christ himself who is the very embodiment of that covenant (Isa 42:6; 49:8).
Nope, that is pure mythology. The Bible is clear and unambiguous that the NEW covenant is made with the SAME TWO PARTIES as the OLD covenant.Christ is ALL, and is in all (Col 3:11), and that means he is the New Covenant, just as He is the Way, the Life and Truth.
Firstly, the new covenant was initiated, but not established.Re your last sentence above: But there are plenty of Jewish believer's today. So, are we supposed to believe that they are in the new covenant relationship with their redeemer, but Gentiles aren't?
You are a liar ... just sayin'You might want to think spend some time rethinking through your heretical doctrine. Just sayin'...
Well, I guess per Mat 26:27-29, you will definitely not be drinking the "fruit of the vine" anew with Jesus in his Father's kingdom.
After all, it is the "blood of the covenant" which is "poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins".
If you're not washed clean of your sins by the blood of the covenant, then you are still in your sins, since you cannot possibly be included in the "many".
For without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of anyone'ssins (Heb 9:22).
Moreover, since you categorically reject the "blood of the [new] covenant",
you unwittingly reject Christ himself who is the very embodiment of that covenant (Isa 42:6; 49:8).
Christ is ALL, and is in all (Col 3:11),
and that means he is the New Covenant, just as He is the Way, the Life and Truth.
Re your last sentence above: But there are plenty of Jewish believer's today. So, are we supposed to believe that they are in the new covenant relationship with their redeemer, but Gentiles aren't? Or are messianic believers today also not in the new covenant relationship with their redeemer because they're still living in the "times of the Gentiles"?
Or what about this "novel" idea: Believe what the Word says
when it tells us that in this NC economy, there are neither Jews or Gentiles, slaves or free
-- that we're all ONE in Christ.
Christ's Body is not divided by ethnicity, as you would have us believe.
Nor do Jewish or Gentile believers drink of a different Spirit (1Cor 12:13)!
And this last teaching is also extremely problematic for you since the promise of the Holy Spirit is a NC promise (Ezek 36:24-27).
And, of course, this was fulfilled at Pentecost.
But how could Gentile believers be baptized (indwelt by) in the Spirit, since the promise in the above passage is made only to Jews?
And scripture clearly teaches that if anyone doesn't have the Spirit of God, he does not belong to Christ (Rom 8:9).
You might want to think spend some time rethinking through your heretical doctrine. Just sayin'...
Not between Israel and the creator?So, yes, there was an eternal "legal agreement" between Father & Son;
You didn't answer my question: Are messianic believers today (right now) in the new covenant relationship with God or not?In the Body of Christ, there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile.
In the New Covenant, there is a distinction between Jew and Gentile.
Things that are different are not the same.
More in-depth reply to come.
You didn't answer my question: Are messianic believers today (right now) in the new covenant relationship with God or not?
The only things that are [very] different are the Old and New Covenants.
Then no one is saved today. The covenant Jesus ratified in his own blood is the New Covenant. It is by the blood of THAT covenant by which many will be saved. The logical inference to your theology is that you are not saved, since you categorically reject being in a personal, intimate, covenant relationship with God through Christ, who just so happens to also be the embodiment of that covenant.Access to the New Covenant was cut off shortly after Paul's conversion on the road to Damascus. There is currently no one (and hasn't been anyone) under the New Covenant since then.
Access will be made available upon the reaching of the fullness of the Gentiles, after which the Great Tribulation will resume.
Any new believers have been saved by the grace of God, not promised salvation through the New Covenant.
Again, the New Covenant, per Scripture, is between the same two parties: God and Israel.
Then no one is saved today.
The covenant Jesus ratified in his own blood is the New Covenant.
It is by the blood of THAT covenant by which many will be saved.
The logical inference to your theology is that you are not saved,
since you categorically reject being in a personal, intimate, covenant relationship with God through Christ,
who just so happens to also be the embodiment of that covenant.