May I ask...

Hoping

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1Th 5:1 But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.
1Th 5:2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
I fail to see anything by Paul that even hints of David's kingdom.

BTW, the kingdom of God is within you...according to Jesus. (Luke 17:20-21)
The word "kingdom" has more than one application.
 

steko

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Hoping:
As to my OP, I still have not garnered what is the big draw of Mid-Acts-Dispensationalism.

The draw for me came along with studying the Word using a literal interpretation and consciously trying to not impose meaning on the text. Also, constant cross-referencing and word studies from the Greek and Hebrew led me to logically arrive at a basic dispensational perspective. Then when I realized that Paul's apostleship was unique and different from that of the twelve, it all began to fall into place. Recognizing distinctions in the text rather than blending it all together was a big help.

As I know it speaks of a difference between Jewish and Gentile believers, and what each is required to do in order to be saved, is the "draw" that MADs forgo repentance from sin?

'Repentance' has become a repeated Christian cliche.
The word in greek is 'metaneo or metanoia' which means to change your mind.
'meta- after and noos-mind' means 'after mind'. Your mind is one way and then suddenly your mind is another way. Most people today believe repent means to change direction. It doesn't.
'Convert- epistrepho' means to change direction.
Jews had to change their mind about the identity of Jesus of Nazareth and be water baptized to be saved under the Kingdom dispensation.
Gentiles had to change their mind about creation and the existence of the true GOD, the GOD of Israel, then trust in the Lord Jesus' work on the cross and His resurrection the third day in order to be saved.

Hoping:
water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins? reception of the gift of the Holy Ghost? walking uprightly in the Spirit instead of in the flesh? or enduring faithfully until the end?
Past sins? What about present sins and future sins?
Water baptism was a Jewish symbolic ceremonial rite of purification.
I received, and was sealed unto the future day of the resurrection of my physical body when I trusted in Christ's finished work on the cross and was spiritually baptized by the Spirit into Christ.
'Enduring faithfully to the end'of the tribulation is a warning given to Israel by the Lord Jesus in Mt 10 and 24.

What is so wrong about turning from sin,
Nothing

getting one's past sins washed away by the blood of Christ at water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sin, receiving the Comforter, walking in the Spirit after the destruction of the flesh, or manifesting the grace of God for an entire life span?

Supra
 

steko

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I fail to see anything by Paul that even hints of David's kingdom.

Requires knowledge of terminology and cross-referencing.

Hoping:
BTW, the kingdom of God is within you...according to Jesus. (Luke 17:20-21)
The word "kingdom" has more than one application.

The Lord Jesus was speaking to the unbelieving corrupt Scribes and Pharisees.
Do you really believe that He was telling them that the Kingdom of GOD was in them?
The King was there... in their midst and they couldn't see it.
 

steko

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I fail to see anything by Paul that even hints of David's kingdom.

BTW, the kingdom of God is within you...according to Jesus. (Luke 17:20-21)
The word "kingdom" has more than one application.

Hint:
The phrase 'the times and seasons' is used twice in the NT writings and both places are referring to the same thing.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
As to my OP, I still have not garnered what is the big draw of Mid-Acts-Dispensationalism.
As I know it speaks of a difference between Jewish and Gentile believers, and what each is required to do in order to be saved, is the "draw" that MADs forgo repentance from sin? water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins? reception of the gift of the Holy Ghost? walking uprightly in the Spirit instead of in the flesh? or enduring faithfully until the end?

What is so wrong about turning from sin, getting one's past sins washed away by the blood of Christ at water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sin, receiving the Comforter, walking in the Spirit after the destruction of the flesh, or manifesting the grace of God for an entire life span?
This part: "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." Right? You have yourself a contradiction between John and Jesus, one saying we all sin, and the Other saying if you sin the truth is not in you. And Dispensationalism doesn't resolve that contradiction. So you still have it, how do you resolve it? Your solution is to say that you don't sin, but that conflicts with John. But if you do sin, then it conflicts with Jesus. You have decided to conflict with John, which appears to be a conservative, safe choice, but the better choice is to find out how they are not contradicting.
 
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Tambora

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This part: "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." Right? You have yourself a contradiction between John and Jesus, one saying we all sin, and the Other saying if you sin the truth is not in you. And Dispensationalism doesn't resolve that contradiction. So you still have it, how do you resolve it? Your solution is to say that you don't sin, but that conflicts with John. But if you do sin, then it conflicts with Jesus. You have decided to conflict with John, which appears to be a conservative, safe choice, but the better choice is to find out how they are not contradicting.
Contradictory statements in scripture don't bother me because they are ancient statements at a time when vocabulary was much more limited than in modern times.
Words were more flexible and less precise.
So you have to take the statements made in light of the ancient limited vocabulary.

We see the flexibility with ancient statements in such cases as "all" isn't always precisely all, forever isn't always precisely forever, 1000 isn't always precisely 1000, etc.
 

Hoping

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Hoping:
The draw for me came along with studying the Word using a literal interpretation and consciously trying to not impose meaning on the text. Also, constant cross-referencing and word studies from the Greek and Hebrew led me to logically arrive at a basic dispensational perspective. Then when I realized that Paul's apostleship was unique and different from that of the twelve, it all began to fall into place. Recognizing distinctions in the text rather than blending it all together was a big help.
So the draw for you was..."Recognizing distinctions in the text rather than blending it all together".
In other words, seeing a division between what is written of the original 12 apostles and Paul.
That doesn't make my heart flutter.
Why did it appeal to you to see division instead of unity?
'Repentance' has become a repeated Christian cliche.
Funny way of referring to one of the basic tenets of conversion.
The word in greek is 'metaneo or metanoia' which means to change your mind.
'meta- after and noos-mind' means 'after mind'. Your mind is one way and then suddenly your mind is another way. Most people today believe repent means to change direction. It doesn't.
'Convert- epistrepho' means to change direction.
If you "change your mind" about driving west, do you continue to drive west?
No.
Jews had to change their mind about the identity of Jesus of Nazareth and be water baptized to be saved under the Kingdom dispensation.
Gentiles had to change their mind about creation and the existence of the true GOD, the GOD of Israel, then trust in the Lord Jesus' work on the cross and His resurrection the third day in order to be saved.
That is fine, but what the Jews had to "change their minds" about was sin.
They and the Gentiles both also received the gift of "repentance unto life". (Acts 11:18)
Hoping:
Past sins? What about present sins and future sins?
If one, as you opine, "changes their mind" about Jesus being the Son of God, (and turns from sin), there will be no more sins.
How can someone recognize that there is an almighty God out there but continue to defy Him?
That does not sound like a real "change from" anything.
It is continuation of a despicable life still walked in the "flesh".
You have seemed to discount the effects of rebirth in your "draw".
But with the dismissal of water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, rebirth won't happen anyway.
Water baptism was a Jewish symbolic ceremonial rite of purification.
Please show me scripture from the OT where anyone was water baptized; (especially in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins).
The word baptize/baptism isn't even used once in the OT.
I received, and was sealed unto the future day of the resurrection of my physical body when I trusted in Christ's finished work on the cross and was spiritually baptized by the Spirit into Christ.
'Enduring faithfully to the end' of the tribulation is a warning given to Israel by the Lord Jesus in Mt 10 and 24.
So the Holy Spirit is living in a polluted temple?
Why isn't it a part of MADists doctrine then?
 

Hoping

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Requires knowledge of terminology and cross-referencing.
If one wants to see something bad enough, they will see it as they wish.
Hoping:
The Lord Jesus was speaking to the unbelieving corrupt Scribes and Pharisees.
Yes He was.
Do you really believe that He was telling them that the Kingdom of GOD was in them?
From context, it seems more like He was rebuffing their desire to see what kingdom was more important.
The Jews only wanted a physical kingdom...and probably freedom from the Romans.
Jesus knew that the greatest enemy to be freed from was sin.
He has made that freedom available to all men on earth.
Thanks be to God !
Mid-Acts-dispensationalism does not seem to pursue that freedom.
The King was there... in their midst and they couldn't see it.
The kingdom is in the heart of every convert to what is now called Christianity.
If they have "turned from" sin, and been baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins.
No man can serve sin and God.
 

Hoping

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Hint:
The phrase 'the times and seasons' is used twice in the NT writings and both places are referring to the same thing.
Th apostles in Acts 1:7 were still inquiring about a physical kingdom.
Paul refers to the end of time and the Lord Jesus' return in 1 Thes 5:1.
I don't see any similarities.
 

JudgeRightly

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Why did it appeal to you to see division instead of unity?

It's not "division instead of unity."

It's "rightly dividing the word of truth."

We rightly divide. You mash everything together.

That is fine, but what the Jews had to "change their minds" about was sin.

No. What Steko said is correct. Had they changed their minds about Jesus being the promised Messiah, they wouldn't have rejected Him as their Messiah.

If one wants to see something bad enough, they will see it as they wish.

That's ironic, coming from you.

The kingdom is in the heart of every convert to what is now called Christianity.

False.

The Kingdom of Israel has nothing to do with Christianity.
 

Hoping

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This part: "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." Right?
Right, and appropriate to those who also cannot say they have fellowship with God.
Why?
Because they walk in the darkness !
Darkness is sin. (Pro 4:19)
You have yourself a contradiction between John and Jesus, one saying we all sin, and the Other saying if you sin the truth is not in you.
Not at all, as it is those who walk in sin that cannot say they have no sin.
Look at 1 John 1:7, which says that ALL our sins can be washed away by the blood of Christ.
Your POV denies verse 7...and 9, which says ALL our unrighteousness CAN be cleansed.
John uses a system of writhing in 1 John 1 which juxtaposes differing walks against each other.
Verses 5, 7, and 9 speak of those who walk in the light...which is God.
Verses 6, 8, and 10 speak of those who walk in sin-darkness.
(Paul uses the same system in Rom 8, where he juxtaposes walking in the Spirit against walking in the "flesh".)
And Dispensationalism doesn't resolve that contradiction.
There is no contradiction.
Where did Jesus say "we all sin"?
Though, except for Himself, it was surely true in His time, now we don't have to sin anymore, since His resurrection, and the introduction of rebirth from Gods seed.
God's seed cannot bring forth liars, adulterers, thieves, or murderers.
We can tell the tree by its fruit...remember?
So you still have it, how do you resolve it?
Now, in the NT, not all men are sinners.
Some have "turned from" sin.
Your solution is to say that you don't sin, but that conflicts with John.
Only if one cannot differentiate between those walking in the light-God and those walking in darkness-sin.
But if you do sin, then it conflicts with Jesus. You have decided to conflict with John, which appears to be a conservative, safe choice, but the better choice is to find out how they are not contradicting.
No contradiction to me, as I can differentiate between those walking in God and those walking in sin.
There is no sin in God, (v5), so those walking in God cannot have sin on them either.
 

steko

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Th apostles in Acts 1:7 were still inquiring about a physical kingdom.
Yeah... after being taught about it for 40 days.

Paul refers to the end of time and the Lord Jesus' return in 1 Thes 5:1.
I don't see any similarities.
First of all... there is no end of time.

The LORD Jesus will return during the Day of the LORD and reign over a restored Israel and to the uttermost parts of the earth from His glorious throne...the throne promised Him...the throne of David....earthly Jerusalem

Luk 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Luk 1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:
Luk 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.

Mat 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
 

Hoping

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It's not "division instead of unity.
It's "rightly dividing the word of truth."
We rightly divide. You mash everything together.
Seeing unity in scriptures is the opposite of division.
No. What Steko said is correct. Had they changed their minds about Jesus being the promised Messiah, they wouldn't have rejected Him as their Messiah.
Though that is true, don't you think that with the realization that their promised Messaih was amongst them would have resulted in a mind also changed regarding sin?
That's ironic, coming from you.
What I "wished to see" was freedom from a dozen addictions.
And hopelessness.
False.
The Kingdom of Israel has nothing to do with Christianity.
I didn't write "the kingdom of Israel".
The kingdom of God is that wherein God rules.
If we are obedient to Him, He rules in us.
 

Hoping

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Yeah... after being taught about it for 40 days.
Do you have any documentation of that?
First of all... there is no end of time.
I guess we'll see.
The last day on this earth will be the last day of this earth.
The LORD Jesus will return during the Day of the LORD and reign over a restored Israel and to the uttermost parts of the earth from His glorious throne...the throne promised Him...the throne of David....earthly Jerusalem

Luk 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Luk 1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:
Luk 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
It can easily be said that those days have already commenced.
We just await its physical manifestation.
It is already happening in the hearts of the reborn.
He rules !
Mat 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
Hurry back Lord Jesus ! (Rev 22:20)
 

steko

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Do you have any documentation of that?
Act 1:3 To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:

I guess we'll see.
You won't see if there is no time.

The last day on this earth will be the last day of this earth.
And that's a thousand plus years away, and....there will still be time.


It can easily be said that those days have already commenced.
Documentation?

We just await its physical manifestation.
It is already happening in the hearts of the reborn.
You've just mashed it all together again.

He rules !
Indeed!

Hurry back Lord Jesus ! (Rev 22:20)
Yes LORD, but long before then... as you promised to and thru your Apostle Paul.
 

Derf

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Hi steko. I missed your post--a good one--for awhile, because it wasn't directly quoting a post of mine or tagging me ("@" followed by my username). If you'll do either in the future, I get notified.
Derf:

Immediately after Paul's conversion, he preached the gospel of the earthly Kingdom of David, which he was saved under. He later received further instruction from the ascended LORD concerning the gospel of Jesus Christ according to the mystery of the grace of GOD. Acts is a historical narrative of a gradual transition from the prophetic program for national Israel to the mystery program for the church the body of Christ.
The gospel of the earthly Davidic Kingdom according to prophecy was a valid gospel up until Acts 15/ Galatians 2. From that point on, Paul's gospel according to the mystery became the only valid gospel for both individual Jews and individual Gentiles. Paul became the Apostle to the nations. Once that generation ended and the temple was destroyed, the gospel of the earthly prophetic Kingdom was set aside until a later date.
I'm ok with most all of that, except that the "gospel of the earthly kingdom" is intimately related to the gospel of grace. No one is/was saved by the gospel of the earthly kingdom! No one! And no one will be. We are all saved by grace. If the gospel of the earthly kingdom requires works of the mosaic law for salvation, then it is anathema to the true gospel, according to Paul.

No one is saved by works.
Today and for most of two-thousand years Paul's gospel is the only valid gospel for both Jews and Gentiles.
If we're talking about salvation, Paul's gospel is the only one that has ever been valid. The old covenant was not sufficient to save, as we learn in Hebrews:
Hebrews 10:1 KJV — For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.

Derf:

During Christ's earthly ministry to the circumcision/national Israel, Jews were required to have faith that Jesus of Nazareth was their promised Messiah plus they had to be ceremonially cleansed by water baptism for forgiveness of sins and to be eligible for a nation wide priesthood to be ministers to the nations/gentiles in the Davidic Kingdom. Until Paul's gospel of grace intervened, works were always required for the Jews as an expression of faith.
Just as Paul said to gentiles, that we are made for good works...an expression of our faith.
2 Corinthians 9:8 KJV — And God is able to make all grace abound toward you; that ye, always having all sufficiency in all things, may abound to every good work:

Today for both Jew and Gentile, what accompanies our faith is our confession that I'm trusting in Christ's finished work on the cross for the forgiveness of sins, plus nothing,
No, that's not true. What accompanies our faith is good works. Ask @JudgeRightly
and that He resurrected the third day for my justification/righteousness before GOD.
I don't even think it's our belief that saves us, any more than it was the faith of those Jesus healed that healed them. Jesus healed them. It was His power at work. But their faith allowed the healing to take place. Our faith, as you describe, allows Christ's sacrifice to be applied to us.
Through the four gospels and early Acts, Israel was to be facing fulfillment of prophecy which would soon bring on the 70th week of Daniel/the tribulation through which individual Jews would have to endure/persevere to survive and receive their returning Messiah in the Day of the LORD. Trumpets, Atonement, and then Tabernacles.
The gospel of the earthly Davidic kingdom will be proclaimed again during that time.
And it will still be that the people that are saved will be saved by grace...not by works of the law. That's not a different gospel.
Derf:


Seems to me, both churches were simply preaching their gospels mostly to their corresponding recipients.
Peter was instructed to go to the gentile Cornelius' house with a special mission that was out of line with the so-called great commission to prepare the way for Paul's ministry to the nations.
Out of line with the command to go into all the world and preach the gospel? I don't see how.
After that event the Jewish believers were going to Jews only in spite of the fact that there had been Gentiles saved in Acts 10..
Yes they were. God had to allow them to be persecuted to even get them to leave Jerusalem.
Competition seems to have significantly begun at Antioch Syria when Jewish Kingdom believers began insisting that believing Gentiles become proselytes of Israel.
That's not competition...that's ANATHEMA.
The response to that event was the Jerusalem council of Acts 15/ Gal 2.
At some point around this time probably when Paul was in Ephesus, he wrote his letter to the Galatian believers who were being seduced into adding works to grace, particularly circumcision and the Mosaic law.
Paul continues to be opposed by the circumcision as expressed in several of his letters.
And he even had to rebuke Peter for falling into the same trap. That's not what you do for a friendly competition. That's what you do to save people from being accursed.
The gospel which he calls 'my gospel' he received directly by revelation from the ascended LORD Jesus and was to be the enduring gospel to both Jew and Gentile in this present age or dispensation.
Peter, James and John added nothing to his knowledge or practice but he informed them of that gospel which he preaches among the nations. Then they 'perceived' and understood his ministry and gave the right hand of fellowship to he and Barnabas. Paul's gospel is the only valid gospel today
Agree
until the fullness of the Gentiles and then GOD resumes the prophetic program/ministry/dispensation and the preaching of the gospel of the Kingdom.
Disagree. They will still be saved by the grace of God, not by works of righteousness.
Derf:.

In early Acts Peter and the eleven under the power of the Holy Spirit made no mistakes.
That's a bold statement. You are certain that none of them ever made any mistakes??
After the stoning of Stephen, the diminishing of the Kingdom program for Israel and the raising up of Paul for the mystery program, Peter displayed his natural weakness of fearing what others thought of him as at the crucifixion. Peter had already understood Paul's doctrine of grace and said as much in Acts 15:7-9.
I'm glad you agree that Peter was in the wrong for returning to the law as his source of salvation.
Derf:

I don't understand that one.
Who are you referring to for saying that?
I'll have to go review it. Don't have time right now.
Derf:


Paul wrote to mostly Gentiles.
Peter wrote to Jews dispersed in other countries as, did James.

Peter said that Paul wrote to at least one Jewish assembly, the same assembly that Peter was writing to in his second letter. This begs the question as to what Jewish assembly Paul wrote to and where is that letter?
Peter tells us--it was the churches of Galatia.
1 Peter 1:1 KJV — Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
Find a map that shows where Galatia is and what other provinces are in and around Galatia.
When I became a Christian in 1979, I accepted that Paul wrote the letter to the Hebrews.
After some time, I grew to believe that Paul did not write Hebrews and defended my position staunchly.
Only recently have I changed my position again having run across several good arguments for Paul being the author but written down by another person. Paul had good reason for remaining anonymous because of the Jewish opposition.
I agree with this, though I'm not unwilling to hear other possibilities. It runs counter to MAD doctrine.
Paul is my Apostle. He communicates to me the Church the Body of Christ doctrine and practice.
His epistles are written to me, about me and for me.
The four gospels, the Jewish epistles and the Revelation are to Jews, about Jews and for Jews.
Revelation includes 7 letters written to churches that were full of gentiles. They were full of gentiles when Paul wrote to and/or visited them, and they were still full of gentiles when Rev was written and received by all of those churches.

There is much for you and me to learn from reading the letters Jesus dictated for those mostly gentile churches. He even promises a blessing for reading them and keeping them.
Revelation 1:3 KJV — Blessed is he that readeth, and they that hear the words of this prophecy, and keep those things which are written therein: for the time is at hand.

It seems a shame not to accept a blessing from our Lord by disregarding His words, don't you think?
 
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Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Please show me scripture from the OT where anyone was water baptized; (especially in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of past sins).
The word baptize/baptism isn't even used once in the OT.
Nowhere in the OT is anybody explicitly baptized in the name of Christ, but confer:
Exodus 40:12 Leviticus 8:6 People are baptized
Psalm 51:2 51:7 David requests to be baptized
Ezekiel 16:9 God baptized Jerusalem
Along with dozens of instances of people baptizing themselves.
 

Hoping

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Nowhere in the OT is anybody explicitly baptized in the name of Christ, but confer:
Exodus 40:12 Leviticus 8:6 People are baptized
If you have a reason to call the priest's washing a baptism...feel free.
But I see no indication of "immersion" in Ex 40 or Lev 8.
Psalm 51:2 51:7 David requests to be baptized
No, he asks God to wash him, but as God doesn't baptize, your point is misdirected.
Ezekiel 16:9 God baptized Jerusalem
I see no "immersion".
But if you see a presage of water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, why are you against water baptism? (or are you?)
Along with dozens of instances of people baptizing themselves.
Taking a bath isn't a baptism.
As John the baptist knew what a baptism was, why is there no prior mention of the word "baptize" before Matt 3?
Especially for the remission of sins?
 

Derf

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If you have a reason to call the priest's washing a baptism...feel free.
But I see no indication of "immersion" in Ex 40 or Lev 8.

No, he asks God to wash him, but as God doesn't baptize, your point is misdirected.

I see no "immersion".
But if you see a presage of water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, why are you against water baptism? (or are you?)

Taking a bath isn't a baptism.
As John the baptist knew what a baptism was, why is there no prior mention of the word "baptize" before Matt 3?
Especially for the remission of sins?
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
If you have a reason to call the priest's washing a baptism...feel free.
But I see no indication of "immersion" in Ex 40 or Lev 8.
So your definition of baptism would be immersion, but basically a ceremonial washing, yes? But being immersive is required for you to call it baptism, is this correct? And you and I both know that you're promoting a partisan position in saying that, favoring the Baptists over almost everybody else. If I'm correct.
No, he asks God to wash him, but as God doesn't baptize, your point is misdirected.
But you do believe baptism is a ceremonial washing, correct?
I see no "immersion".
But you see a ceremonial washing, yes?
But if you see a presage of water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, why are you against water baptism? (or are you?)

Taking a bath isn't a baptism.
You're the one saying it's got to be immersive to be a baptism. Do you believe it is a ceremonial washing or not?
As John the baptist knew what a baptism was, why is there no prior mention of the word "baptize" before Matt 3?
Especially for the remission of sins?
Apparently it's because baptism means immersion "in the Greek."

(According to Derf's link.)

But certainly when people are instructed to wash themselves in the sea, we're talking about immersion, right? I can't imagine you go to the sea to ceremonially wash your flesh, and you're merely up to your ankles washing your feet.

I don't think John the Baptist just washed people's feet in the Jordan.

There are a lot of examples of people washing their feet in the OT too, just so you know, so the practice was distinct and distinguished from all the other ceremonial washings

(sometimes washing your feet was just hygiene, but sometimes is was ceremonial, priestly)

.
 
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