There are scriptures with the words law of Moses in them, as well as the word ordinances.
1 Kings 2:3 NASB - 3 "Keep the charge of the LORD your God, to walk in His ways, to keep His statutes, His commandments, His ordinances, and His testimonies, according to what is written in the Law of Moses, that you may succeed in all that you do and wherever you turn,
2 Chronicles 33:8 NASB - 8 and I will not again remove the foot of Israel from the land which I have appointed for your fathers, if only they will observe to do all that I have commanded them according to all the law, the statutes and the ordinances [given] through Moses."
Nehemiah 10:29 NASB - 29 are joining with their kinsmen, their nobles, and are taking on themselves a curse and an oath to walk in God's law, which was given through Moses, God's servant, and to keep and to observe all the commandments of GOD our Lord, and His ordinances and His statutes;
Malachi 4:4 NASB - 4 "Remember the law of Moses My servant, [even the] statutes and ordinances which I commanded him in Horeb for all Israel.
Jesus said that He did not come to abolish the Law or the Prophets.
Matthew 5:17 NASB - 17 "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill.
He abolished in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances.
Ephesians 2:15 NASB - 15 by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, [which is] the Law of commandments [contained] in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, [thus] establishing peace,
Often we hear of the moral law, the civil law, and the ceremonial law. Sometimes people say that the ordinances are the ceremonial law.
Some people include the Sabbath in that.
Personally I believe that God's Law is moral. Sin is lawlessness or transgression of the law. The question might be "What is the crime that has been committed?", if someone has sinned.
What is the nature of the Law? Should it all be observed? What if Israel does and yet in the person of Christ there is no dividing wall separating Jew and Gentile or Jew and Greek circumcised and uncircumcised?
So, as we see the word ordinances, we might ask if it means the ceremonial law or all of the law, but when we look at the references that are not the Ephesians one that have the word ordinances in them, here is a list of all the references, first page, is it the same? That is what is meant in context, as we examine the word ordinances? Because a separation being abolished does not necessarily mean that the Law has been abolished. Or does it?
Someone who knows needs to teach me. Not just matching law or idea with law or idea. In other words, I need help with this.
I believe that I am saved by the blood of Jesus, forgiven and free, but I struggle with thinking about sin in light of the punishments we find in the Law, from death penalty to lesser.
Can I teach both the Law and the Gospel without there being any contradiction?
Yes, the Ephesians ordinances is from the Greek. I have not looked at the Hebrew words.
1 Kings 2:3 NASB - 3 "Keep the charge of the LORD your God, to walk in His ways, to keep His statutes, His commandments, His ordinances, and His testimonies, according to what is written in the Law of Moses, that you may succeed in all that you do and wherever you turn,
2 Chronicles 33:8 NASB - 8 and I will not again remove the foot of Israel from the land which I have appointed for your fathers, if only they will observe to do all that I have commanded them according to all the law, the statutes and the ordinances [given] through Moses."
Nehemiah 10:29 NASB - 29 are joining with their kinsmen, their nobles, and are taking on themselves a curse and an oath to walk in God's law, which was given through Moses, God's servant, and to keep and to observe all the commandments of GOD our Lord, and His ordinances and His statutes;
Malachi 4:4 NASB - 4 "Remember the law of Moses My servant, [even the] statutes and ordinances which I commanded him in Horeb for all Israel.
Jesus said that He did not come to abolish the Law or the Prophets.
Matthew 5:17 NASB - 17 "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill.
He abolished in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances.
Ephesians 2:15 NASB - 15 by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, [which is] the Law of commandments [contained] in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, [thus] establishing peace,
Often we hear of the moral law, the civil law, and the ceremonial law. Sometimes people say that the ordinances are the ceremonial law.
Some people include the Sabbath in that.
Personally I believe that God's Law is moral. Sin is lawlessness or transgression of the law. The question might be "What is the crime that has been committed?", if someone has sinned.
What is the nature of the Law? Should it all be observed? What if Israel does and yet in the person of Christ there is no dividing wall separating Jew and Gentile or Jew and Greek circumcised and uncircumcised?
So, as we see the word ordinances, we might ask if it means the ceremonial law or all of the law, but when we look at the references that are not the Ephesians one that have the word ordinances in them, here is a list of all the references, first page, is it the same? That is what is meant in context, as we examine the word ordinances? Because a separation being abolished does not necessarily mean that the Law has been abolished. Or does it?
Someone who knows needs to teach me. Not just matching law or idea with law or idea. In other words, I need help with this.
I believe that I am saved by the blood of Jesus, forgiven and free, but I struggle with thinking about sin in light of the punishments we find in the Law, from death penalty to lesser.
Can I teach both the Law and the Gospel without there being any contradiction?
Yes, the Ephesians ordinances is from the Greek. I have not looked at the Hebrew words.
