The who/what/where/when/& how of the ONE true gospel...
The who/what/where/when/& how of the ONE true gospel...
Jerry –
In my last reply (post # 365) I attributed R. Anderson’s flawed arguments to Eldersheim. Anderson is certainly wrong and this includes the pitiful applications he made of Christ’s death in reference to the Passover, sin offerings, and the scapegoat.
Also, I had been showing you where Paul said the gospel had been preached to Abraham as in Galatians 3:8 – “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand unto Abraham, [saying,] In thee shall all the nations be blessed.” ASV You replied…
Paul says that the “gospel” (the good tidings of man’s salvation) was preached to Abraham by “the scripture”.
Paul says “the scripture” said ALL nations were going to be saved through the linage of Abraham.
Paul also says that “the scripture” that “foresaw” this salvation, also PREACHED that gospel to Abraham – Paul used Genesis 12:3 as “the scripture” in this example. We did not have to wait for Paul to announce the Gentiles would be saved by faith – that announcement came 1500 years before Christ.
Perhaps you will tell me HOW “the scriptures” can “foresee” something (or “look forward” to something as the NLT rendered it) if “the scriptures” were not “preaching” about that which was to come? …such as the justification of the Gentiles BY FAITH.
Jerry, you have had TWO chances now to explain to us what Paul meant when he wrote – “…foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith…”. Why have you not told us what Paul meant here? Hmmm???
Now Jerr, isn’t this what YOU teach – that the Gentiles are justified by faith? If so, stop your baloney mill of trying to tell me or anyone else that the gospel YOU teach was not preached before Paul showed up. Paul tells us plainly here in Galatians 3:8 that the gospel of justification by faith was known from the time of Abraham! The scriptures preached it and foresaw it! Whether or not anyone understood this at the time does not change the facts!
1.) “But now…” refers to a period of time, not a specificpoint in time when God’s righteousness was being manifested to man. Hopefully you are not foolish enough to think that “but now” refers to that specific point in time.
2.) Romans 3:21-22 tells us that the “righteousness of God without the law” that was being manifested at that time, “even the righteousness of God [which is] by faith in Jesus Christ” is WITNESSED by the law and the prophets…”
OH MY! Paul tells us that the “law and the prophets” are WITNESSES (ei. give testimony) of the righteousness that was “now” being manifested. All you have to do is EXPLAIN how it is possible for the OT to “witness” about that which it never (as you claim) spoke about!
-Who – God/Christ
-What – Gospel/Salvation
-Where – Earth/Calvary
-How – Death/Crucifixion
-When – Fulness of time.
As I have previously shown (irrefutable by you) the OT prophets knew salvation was coming and that God’s Christ would suffer – 1 Peter 1:10-12. What the prophets did not know was in what manner (how) and at what time (when) these events would take place. The prophets “enquired and searched diligently” to know, but this was “hidden” from them - this being God’s hidden wisdom, the “mystery”, see 1 Cor.2:6-7.
The “GOSPEL” is the glad tidings that God was/is going to save “all nations”. What Abraham and the OT prophets did not know was WHEN this would come about and HOW that salvation would be secured for them. This when and how is the “mystery”, the part of God’s wisdom hidden from man. The “gospel” was heralded from OT times.
And whether the prophets, His disciples, or anyone else understood or understands God’s plan of salvation, such does not change His plan, alter its revelation, or negate one fact – it makes no difference in its establishment, its fruition, and its realization!
Paul tells us -4- things in these two passages – 1) Christ died for our sins. 2)He was buried. 3) He arose the 3rd day. 4) These things happened ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES !
It is your assertion and nothing more, that verse 4 “proves” this is speaking in regards to “types”. Please tell us HOW SO?? There is not one thing in these 2 verses that suggests “types” are being discussed. This is but another prime example of your trying to jam something into a verse that is not there. The problem is you do not believe what Paul has to say here. You don’t believe NT scriptures so why would you believe OT scriptures if I produced them by the hundreds?
<<<*>>>
Galatians 2:7-8 – “They saw that God had given me the responsibility of preaching the Good News to the Gentiles, just as he had given Peter the responsibility of preaching to the Jews. 8 For the same God who worked through Peter for the benefit of the Jews worked through me for the benefit of the Gentiles.” - NLT
The who/what/where/when/& how of the ONE true gospel...
Jerry –
In my last reply (post # 365) I attributed R. Anderson’s flawed arguments to Eldersheim. Anderson is certainly wrong and this includes the pitiful applications he made of Christ’s death in reference to the Passover, sin offerings, and the scapegoat.
Also, I had been showing you where Paul said the gospel had been preached to Abraham as in Galatians 3:8 – “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand unto Abraham, [saying,] In thee shall all the nations be blessed.” ASV You replied…
Quibble over semantics if you want, but Paul says it DOES!Gal.3:8 does not say that the OT Scriptures "revealed" that the Gentiles would be saved by faith.
Paul says that the “gospel” (the good tidings of man’s salvation) was preached to Abraham by “the scripture”.
Paul says “the scripture” said ALL nations were going to be saved through the linage of Abraham.
Paul also says that “the scripture” that “foresaw” this salvation, also PREACHED that gospel to Abraham – Paul used Genesis 12:3 as “the scripture” in this example. We did not have to wait for Paul to announce the Gentiles would be saved by faith – that announcement came 1500 years before Christ.
Perhaps you will tell me HOW “the scriptures” can “foresee” something (or “look forward” to something as the NLT rendered it) if “the scriptures” were not “preaching” about that which was to come? …such as the justification of the Gentiles BY FAITH.
Jerry, you have had TWO chances now to explain to us what Paul meant when he wrote – “…foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith…”. Why have you not told us what Paul meant here? Hmmm???
Now Jerr, isn’t this what YOU teach – that the Gentiles are justified by faith? If so, stop your baloney mill of trying to tell me or anyone else that the gospel YOU teach was not preached before Paul showed up. Paul tells us plainly here in Galatians 3:8 that the gospel of justification by faith was known from the time of Abraham! The scriptures preached it and foresaw it! Whether or not anyone understood this at the time does not change the facts!
Two points:This truth was not revealed until Paul made it known:
"But now the righteousness of God without law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; Even the righteousness of God which is by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe"(Ro.3:21,22).
1.) “But now…” refers to a period of time, not a specificpoint in time when God’s righteousness was being manifested to man. Hopefully you are not foolish enough to think that “but now” refers to that specific point in time.
2.) Romans 3:21-22 tells us that the “righteousness of God without the law” that was being manifested at that time, “even the righteousness of God [which is] by faith in Jesus Christ” is WITNESSED by the law and the prophets…”
OH MY! Paul tells us that the “law and the prophets” are WITNESSES (ei. give testimony) of the righteousness that was “now” being manifested. All you have to do is EXPLAIN how it is possible for the OT to “witness” about that which it never (as you claim) spoke about!
As I said, you do not know HOW Paul uses this word - you don’t know what was hidden, and more importantly, you do not know what had already been revealed in reference to the mystery. You want to claim that ALL of God’s plan of salvation since from the beginning of time for all men was hidden until Paul arrived – it wasn’t. Let’s take a quick look:Of course I understand what Paul meant when he used the word "mystery".It means something that was kept secret but is now made known…
-Who – God/Christ
-What – Gospel/Salvation
-Where – Earth/Calvary
-How – Death/Crucifixion
-When – Fulness of time.
As I have previously shown (irrefutable by you) the OT prophets knew salvation was coming and that God’s Christ would suffer – 1 Peter 1:10-12. What the prophets did not know was in what manner (how) and at what time (when) these events would take place. The prophets “enquired and searched diligently” to know, but this was “hidden” from them - this being God’s hidden wisdom, the “mystery”, see 1 Cor.2:6-7.
The “GOSPEL” is the glad tidings that God was/is going to save “all nations”. What Abraham and the OT prophets did not know was WHEN this would come about and HOW that salvation would be secured for them. This when and how is the “mystery”, the part of God’s wisdom hidden from man. The “gospel” was heralded from OT times.
And whether the prophets, His disciples, or anyone else understood or understands God’s plan of salvation, such does not change His plan, alter its revelation, or negate one fact – it makes no difference in its establishment, its fruition, and its realization!
This is a broad and sweeping remark that is not only wrong, you can not prove it.The purpose of His death could only be found in the "types".But that does not mean that anyone understood those types.
To refresh… 1 Cor. 15:3-4 – “For I delivered unto you first of all that which also I received: that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; 4 and that he was buried; and that he was raised the third day, according to the scriptures….Known beforehand that Christ would die for our sins "according to the Scriptures"?
The verse that follows [1 Cor. 15:4] proves that the words "according to the Scriptures" is in regard to "types" and not in regard to an open revelation:
Paul tells us -4- things in these two passages – 1) Christ died for our sins. 2)He was buried. 3) He arose the 3rd day. 4) These things happened ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES !
It is your assertion and nothing more, that verse 4 “proves” this is speaking in regards to “types”. Please tell us HOW SO?? There is not one thing in these 2 verses that suggests “types” are being discussed. This is but another prime example of your trying to jam something into a verse that is not there. The problem is you do not believe what Paul has to say here. You don’t believe NT scriptures so why would you believe OT scriptures if I produced them by the hundreds?
<<<*>>>
Galatians 2:7-8 – “They saw that God had given me the responsibility of preaching the Good News to the Gentiles, just as he had given Peter the responsibility of preaching to the Jews. 8 For the same God who worked through Peter for the benefit of the Jews worked through me for the benefit of the Gentiles.” - NLT